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NURS 6551 Midterm Exam / NURS6551 Midterm Exam(95 Q/A)(2020/21):Walden university

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NURS 6551 Midterm Exam / NURS6551 Midterm Exam(V1)(95 Q/A): Primary Care of Women (2020/21, All Correct Answers):Walden university

 

Question 1

Which contraceptive methods have inherent failure rates?

 

a.

None

 

b.

Some

 

c.

All

 

d.

All except sterilization

 

Question 2

Why do adolescents have the highest risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

 

a.

They have the highest risk for bacterial vaginosis.

 

b.

They are the least at risk for developing other STIs.

 

c.

They are the most sexually active.

 

d.

They have decreased immunity to infectious organisms.

Question 3

Exercise-induced amenorrhea is probably due to the combination of low body fat and decreased secretion of:

 

a.

Estrogen

 

b.

Prolactin

 

c.

Progesterone

 

d.

GnRH

 

Question 4

How can liver and renal diseases result in abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)?

 

a.

They cause an imbalance in platelet aggregation.

 

b.

They result in an inability to adequately clear estrogen from the body.

 

c.

They cause thyroid dysfunction, which leads to bleeding abnormalities.

 

d.

They result in elevated prolactin levels, which lead to bleeding abnormalities.

 

Question 5

What is now thought to be the most important causative agent in cervical cancer?

 

a.

PCOS

 

b.

Vulvar cancer

 

c.

Herpes simplex

 

d.

HPV

 

Question 6

An initial or primary genital herpes infection characteristically lasts about:

 

a.

1 week

 

b.

3 weeks

 

c.

1 month

 

d.

6 weeks

 

Question 7

What can result from an imbalance in the vaginal flora?

 

a.

Herpes simplex virus

 

b.

Human papillomavirus

 

c.

Chlamydia

 

d.

Bacterial vaginosis

Question 8

The most effective means of obtaining the history of abuse is to use a communication model that:

 

a.

Avoids having the patient’s children present during the discussion

 

b.

Signals someone is interested and that the woman is not alone

 

c.

Emphasizes the belief that violence is not acceptable, no matter what the batterer might have said to the patient

 

d.

Allows the patient to talk without interruption and with time to relate, emphasize, and repeat her full story

Question 9

What is the most common STI in the United States?

 

a.

Gonorrhea

 

b.

Chlamydia

 

c.

Syphilis

 

d.

Herpes simplex virus

 

Question 10

Progestin-only pills (POPs):

 

a.

Have no possible side effects

 

b.

Suppress ovulation as reliably as COCs

 

c.

May be taken earlier or later than prescribed

 

d.

In combination with lactation are nearly 100% effective

 

Question 11

According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the presence of a disease state:

 

a.

Necessitates prompt medical attention

 

b.

Excludes a person from being considered healthy

 

c.

Does not exclude a person from being considered healthy

 

d.

Classifies a person as in poor health

 

Question 12

Which of the following might be a sign of hyperandrogenism?

 

a.

Irritable bowel syndrome

 

b.

Decreased sebum secretion in the skin

 

c.

Decreased muscle mass

 

d.

Acne associated with menstrual dysfunction

Question 13

Surgical abortion represents an option for women who desire termination of pregnancy beyond:

 

a.

8 weeks’ gestation

 

b.

12 weeks’ gestation

 

c.

4 weeks’ gestation

 

d.

15 weeks’ gestation

 

 

 

Question 14

How can weight loss specifically control symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

 

a.

It decreases SHBG.

 

b.

It increases insulin resistance.

 

c.

It decreases androgen levels.

 

d.

It increases estrogen levels.

 

Question 15

Why is acknowledging the oppression of women more difficult within Western societies?

 

a.

The multiplicity of minority groups complicates the issue.

 

b.

The availability of health care makes acknowledgment more difficult.

 

c.

The diversity of the news media clouds the issue.

 

d.

Affluence and increased opportunities mask oppression.

 

Question 16

How does vaginosis differ from vaginitis?

 

a.

It must be treated with metronidazole.

 

b.

The discharge does not contain white blood cells.

 

c.

The discharge does not have an odor.

 

d.

It causes itching and/or burning.

 

Question 17

What area of injury prevention is a focus of the USPSTF’s guidelines for counseling all healthy, asymptomatic women?

 

a.

Motor vehicle accidents

 

b.

Falls

 

c.

Domestic violence

 

d.

All of the above

 

Question 18

What approach does Healthy People 2020 use to achieve its goals and objectives?

 

a.

Social determinants of health

 

b.

Evidence-based determinants of health

 

c.

Quality-of-life determinants of health

 

d.

Longevity promotion determinants of health

 

Question 19

Approximately what percentage of women with bacterial vaginosis are asymptomatic?

 

a.

25%

 

b.

40%

 

c.

75%

 

d.

50%

 

Question 20

The genetic counselor has a significant role in the care of women because BRCA1 and BRCA2 genetic mutations account for 5 to 10 percent of all _______ cancer cases.

 

a.

Breast

 

b.

Ovarian

 

c.

Uterine

 

d.

Pancreatic

 

Question 21

Which organism causes 90% of vulvovaginal candidiasis episodes in women?

 

a.

Candida tropicalis

 

b.

Candida albicans

 

c.

Candida glabrata

 

d.

Candida krusei

 

Question 22

What term refers to the period from about 7 to 10 days before menstrual flow begins until the first or second day of menstrual flow?

 

a.

Amenorrhea

 

b.

Premenstrual

 

c.

Dysmenorrhea

 

d.

Perimenstrual

 

Question 23

The ParaGard IUD is impregnated with copper and is effective for:

 

a.

15 years

 

b.

3 years

 

c.

5 years

 

d.

10 years

 

Question 24

What is the danger of giving estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) to menopausal women with an intact uterus?

 

a.

A higher risk of heart disease

 

b.

An increased likelihood of blood clots

 

c.

An increased likelihood of osteoporosis

 

d.

A higher risk of endometrial cancer

 

Question 25

Although barrier contraception methods are less effective in preventing pregnancy than more modern methods, interest in them is on the rise because they:

 

a.

Can help protect against STIs, including HIV

 

b.

Are coitus dependent and require planning

 

c.

Are nonallergenic and male controlled

 

d.

Involve the use of hormones

 

Question 26

A risk factor that could lead to endometrial cancer is:

 

a.

Early menopause

 

b.

Late menopause

 

c.

High blood pressure

 

d.

Cervical cancer

Question 27

Of the two intrauterine contraceptive devices currently available in the United States only one provides a local delivery of protestin. It is the:

 

a.

Combined contraceptive patch (Ortho Evra)

 

b.

Copper IUD (T380A, ParaGard)

 

c.

LNG-IUS (Mirena)

 

d.

Dalkon Shield

Question 28

Approximately what percentage of vulvar cancers occur in women older than the age of 50?

 

a.

50%

 

b.

70%

 

c.

85%

 

d.

60%

Question 29

What is the best definition of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)?

 

a.

Uterine bleeding for which no pelvic pathology is found

 

b.

Uterine bleeding that is irregular during a woman’s menstrual cycle

 

c.

Uterine bleeding that is irregular in amount or frequency

 

d.

Uterine bleeding that is related to systemic conditions

 

 

 

 

Question 30

The most common benign breast masses are:

 

a.

Galactoceles

 

b.

Hamartomas

 

c.

Fibroadenomas and cysts

 

d.

Lipomas and phyllodes tumors

 

Question 31

Which cancer has the highest mortality rate of all gynecological cancers?

 

a.

Vulvar cancer

 

b.

Endometrial cancer

 

c.

Cervical cancer

 

d.

Ovarian cancer

Question 32

Vulvovaginal candidiasis accounts for what percentage of all vaginal infections?

 

A.

10–15%

 

B.

20–25%

 

C.

50–55%

 

D.

60–65%

Question 33

Which type of counseling results in a statistically significant reduction in STIs?

 

a.

Abstinence-only education

 

b.

Counseling delivered in multiple individual or group sessions totaling more than 3 hours

 

c.

Remote counseling via Internet or phone

 

d.

Brief, individual sessions in the primary care setting

Question 34

Which of the following is an ethical issue that is specifically associated with pre-implantation testing with ART?

 

a.

Ownership of frozen embryos after the couple has divorced

 

b.

A surrogate deciding she does not want to relinquish the infant

 

c.

Genetic engineering and the ability to reject embryos affected by inherited disorders

 

d.

The implantation of multiple embryos, which can create high risk for the embryos and the woman

Question 35

What symptom is present in 80 to 90 percent of women with cervical cancer?

 

a.

Abnormal vaginal bleeding

 

b.

Abnormal vaginal discharge

 

c.

Pelvic pain

 

d.

Ectopic pregnancy

Question 36

If a patient has not reported a sexual assault to law enforcement, all of the following clinician actions are important except:

 

a.

Asking if reporting is something she wants to consider

 

b.

Discussing any fears or concerns that she may have about reporting

 

c.

Explaining that only some forced sexual contacts are reportable crimes

 

d.

Telling her that women who report do better psychologically than those who do not

Question 37

What test should be ordered for a woman who is experiencing abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) as well as headaches and peripheral vision changes?

 

a.

Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

 

b.

Nucleic acid amplification test

 

c.

Complete blood count

 

d.

Prolactin level test

Question 38

What had been a significant problem in medical research well into the 1990s?

 

a.

The focus on randomized clinical trials over epidemiological investigations

 

b.

The lack of representation of women in research trials

 

c.

The lack of research related to gynecology

 

d.

The focus on randomized clinical trials over observational research

Question 39

What is the definitive diagnostic technique for vulvar dermatoses?

 

a.

Pap test

 

b.

Biopsy

 

c.

Colposcopy

 

d.

Physical exam

Question 40

Where in the breast do most malignancies develop?

 

a.

Upper inner quadrant

 

b.

Upper outer quadrant

 

c.

Lower outer quadrant

 

d.

Lower inner quadrant

Question 41

Approximately how many Americans will contract one or more sexually transmitted infections during their lifetime?

 

a.

50%

 

b.

25%

 

c.

40%

 

d.

60%

Question 42

In the GTPAL system for recording pregnancy history, the “T” stands for:

 

a.

Term births

 

b.

Terminal pregnancies

 

c.

Total number of pregnancies

 

d.

Type of birth (spontaneous, assisted, or cesarean)

Question 43

Both very young and elderly sexual assault victims:

 

a.

Are addressed in most state mandatory reporting laws

 

b.

never has any difficulty describing the incident and related symptoms

 

c.

Require the same equipment for proper examination that others do

 

d.

Have fewer injuries than victims of other age groups

Question 44

What is one of the side effects of hormonal contraceptives?

 

a.

Reduction in ovarian cancer risk

 

b.

Increased menstrual blood loss

 

c.

Increased risk of endometrial cancer

 

d.

Heavier menstrual flow

Question 45

Tubal sterilization for women who have completed their families is highly effective, but there are disadvantages such as:

 

a.

Women are less likely to use condoms or return for health services.

 

b.

There is a decreased risk of ovarian cancer and pelvic inflammatory disease.

 

c.

There is a high likelihood of complications and side effects.

 

d.

The surgery is not covered by insurance.

Question 46

What is the current (2006) recommendation by the CDC regarding HIV testing?

 

a.

Test all patients who report risk behaviors associated with HIV.

 

b.

Test all patients unless they explicitly decline to be tested.

 

c.

Test all patients.

 

d.

Test only those patients who ask to be tested.

 

Question 47

What is generally the cause of Bartholin’s cyst?

 

a.

Complications from gonorrhea

 

b.

Cystic fluid in Bartholin’s gland becomes infected

 

c.

A fungal infection in Bartholin’s gland

 

d.

Obstruction of a duct in Bartholin’s gland

Question 48

Which of the following factors associated with increased risk for developing osteoporosis appears to be the best predictor of risk?

 

a.

Smoking

 

b.

Low body weight

 

c.

Sedentary lifestyle

 

d.

Family history

Question 49

What is the definition of primary amenorrhea?

 

a.

The cessation of menses for an interval of 6 months

 

b.

The failure to begin menses by age 14

 

c.

The cessation of menses due to outflow tract obstruction

 

d.

The failure to begin menses by age 16

Question 50

 

In respect to an evidentiary examination:

 

a.

The patient may not withhold consent if the clinician is a mandated reporter.

 

b.

The clinician is required to strictly follow local agency protocols, no others.

 

c.

The time frame within which it must take place depends on local standards.

 

d.

Maintaining the chain of custody of all evidence collected is recommended, not required.

 

 

 

NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Guide

 

Question 1

 

1.    Which of the following is a diagnostic label that is listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual IV-TR?

2.     

3.    a.

a. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

4.     

5.    b.

b. Premenstrual magnification

6.     

7.    c.

c. Dysmenorrhea

8.     

9.    d.

d. Premenstrual syndrome

Question 2

1.    About half of all pregnancies in the United States are unintended and occur most frequently in women who:

2.     

3.    a.

a. Are married or divorced

4.     

5.    b.

b.Have finished high school

6.     

7.    c.

c. Are between the ages of 18 and 24

8.     

9.    d.

d. Are members of the majority group

 

 

Question 3

 

What is one factor that can reduce the risk for the development of ovarian cancer?

 

a.

Multiple pregnancies

 

b.

Transvaginal ultrasounds

 

c.

Identification of recurrence

 

d.

Weight loss

 

Question 4

What percentage of toxic shock syndrome cases are related to menses?

 

a.

50%

 

b.

25%

 

c.

75%

 

d.

90%

Question 5

Tubal sterilization for women who have completed their families is highly effective, but there are disadvantages such as:

 

a.

Women are less likely to use condoms or return for health services.

 

b.

There is a decreased risk of ovarian cancer and pelvic inflammatory disease.

 

c.

There is a high likelihood of complications and side effects.

 

d.

The surgery is not covered by insurance.

 

Question 6

Women who report experiencing the most severe symptoms of PMS tend to be:

1.     

2.    a.

a. In their late 40s

3.     

4.    b.

b. In their early 20s

5.     

6.    c.

c. In their late teens

7.     

8.    d.

d. In their late 30s

 

Question 7

What is the definition of primary amenorrhea?

 

a.

The cessation of menses for an interval of 6 months

 

b.

The failure to begin menses by age 14

 

c.

The cessation of menses due to outflow tract obstruction

 

d.

The failure to begin menses by age 16

Question 8

How many stages does the Tanner scale use to stage sexual maturity?

 

a.

3 stages

 

b.

5 stages

 

c.

6 stages

 

d.

8 stages

 

 

Question 9

Which contraceptive methods have inherent failure rates?

1.     

2.    a.

a.None

3.     

4.    b.

b.Some

5.     

6.    c.

c.All

7.     

8.    d.

d.All except sterilization

Question 10

What is the most common type of menstrual dysfunction related to hyperandrogenism?

 

a.

Painful menstruation

 

b.

Absence of menses

 

c.

Irregular bleeding

 

d.

Early menopause

 

Question 11

Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are among the most extensively studied medications available. Which one of the following statements about their use has been found to be true?

 

a.

Broad-spectrum antibiotics may enhance their efficacy.

 

b.

They do not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.

 

c.

They decrease the relative risk of ovarian and endometrial cancers.

 

d.

Among possible side effects are acne, hirsuitism, and benign breast conditions.

Question 12

Many patients experiencing intimate partner violence (IPV) meet the criteria for diagnosing PTSD. Those criteria include all of the following except:

1.     

2.    a.

a.Experiencing a traumatic event

3.     

4.    b.

b.Reexperiencing the traumatic event

5.     

6.    c.

c.Numbness and avoidance

7.     

8.    d.

d.Hypovigilance

Question 13

Which of the following is an ethical issue that is specifically associated with pre-implantation testing with ART?

1.     

2.    a.

a.Ownership of frozen embryos after the couple has divorced

3.     

4.    b.

b.A surrogate deciding she does not want to relinquish the infant

5.     

6.    c.

c.Genetic engineering and the ability to reject embryos affected by inherited disorders

7.     

8.    d.

d.The implantation of multiple embryos, which can create high risk for the embryos and the woman

Question 14

The ________ is probably the most widely used intimate partner violence (IPV) screen.

 

a.

Three-question AAS (McFarlane et al., 1992)

 

b.

Campbell’s Danger Assessment (2003)

 

c.

Sheridan’s HARASS Instrument

 

d.

Helton’s nine-question AAS

Question 15

What is the term for the absence of menses for 3 to 6 months in a woman who has previously menstruated and is not pregnant, breastfeeding, or menopausal?

1.     

2.    a.

3.    Primary amenorrhea

4.     

5.    b.

6.    Initial dysmenorrhea

7.     

8.    c.

9.    Secondary amenorrhea

10.  

11. d.

12. Primary dysmenorrhea

Question 16

Among women age 55 years and older:

 

a.

Macromastia is the most common cause of breast masses.

 

b.

Breast masses are presumed malignant until proven otherwise.

 

c.

Most breast masses decrease in size over time and many resolve completely.

 

d.

Diagnostic imaging of a breast mass and tissue sampling should be deferred.

Question 17

Both very young and elderly sexual assault victims:

1.     

2.    a.

Are addressed in most state mandatory reporting laws

3.     

4.    b.

never has any difficulty describing the incident and related symptoms

5.     

6.    c.

Require the same equipment for proper examination that others do

7.     

8.    d.

Have fewer injuries than victims of other age groups

 

 

 

Question 18

What is the major source of normal vaginal secretions?

 

a.

Bartholin’s glands

 

b.

Apocrine glands

 

c.

Sebaceous glands

 

d.

Cervical mucosa

Question 19

Which one of the following statements about intimate partner violence (IPV) is false?

1.     

2.    a.

3.    It refers to an escalating pattern of abuse.

4.     

5.    b.

6.    It includes emotional abuse, such as disregarding what a woman wants.

7.     

8.    c.

9.    It includes using physical force to make a woman engage in a sexual act against her will.

10.  

11. d.

12. It refers to a current or former spouse or dating partner of the opposite sex, not someone of the same sex.

Question 20

How is being overweight defined on the BMI table?

 

a.

18–29.9

 

b.

20–29.9

 

c.

25–29.9

 

d.

30 or greater

Question 21

What has contributed to the decreased incidence of hepatitis B over the past 20 years?

1.     

2.    a.

3.    The decrease in PID

4.     

5.    b.

6.    The HBV vaccination

7.     

8.    c.

9.    The increase in condom use

10.  

11. d.

12. More precise screening methods

 

Question 22

Which are the most common forms of hepatitis seen in women’s health practices?

 

a.

A and B

 

b.

A and D

 

c.

B, C, and D

 

d.

B and C

Question 23

The factors that enable women to enjoy and control their sexual and reproductive lives, including a physical and emotional state of well-being and the quality of sexual and other close relationships, make up a woman’s:

1.     

2.    a.

3.    Sexual health

4.     

5.    b.

6.    Gender identity

7.     

8.    c.

9.    Gender role behaviors

10.  

11. d.

12. Psychosocial orientation

 

Question 24

What test should be ordered for a woman who is experiencing abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) as well as headaches and peripheral vision changes?

 

a.

Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

 

b.

Nucleic acid amplification test

 

c.

Complete blood count

 

d.

Prolactin level test

Question 25

Surgical abortion represents an option for women who desire termination of pregnancy beyond:

1.     

2.    a.

3.    8 weeks’ gestation

4.     

5.    b.

6.    12 weeks’ gestation

7.     

8.    c.

9.    4 weeks’ gestation

10.  

11. d.

12. 15 weeks’ gestation

Question 26

What population of women should be screened for signs and symptoms of thyroid dysfunction?

1.     

2.    a.

3.    All women

4.     

5.    b.

6.    Older women

7.     

8.    c.

9.    Older women, smokers, and women with diabetes

10.  

11. d.

12. Older women, postpartum women, and women with Down syndrome

Question 27

All of the following diagnostic testing and procedures are now infrequently performed in clinical practice except:

1.     

2.    a.

3.    Hysterosalpingogram

4.     

5.    b.

6.    Sperm penetration assay

7.     

8.    c.

9.    The postcoital test (PCT)

10.  

11. d.

12. Endometrial biopsy (EMB)

Question 28

The most common site for endometrial implants found in other parts of the body is:

1.     

2.    a.

3.    The appendix

4.     

5.    b.

6.    The uterus

7.     

8.    c.

9.    The ovaries

10.  

11. d.

12. The fallopian tubes

Question 29

Women who have had toxic shock syndrome should be instructed not to use tampons or:

 

a.

Barrier contraception methods

 

b.

Hormonal contraception methods

 

c.

Intravaginal antibiotic cream

 

d.

Oral antibiotics

Question 30

Cyclic mastalgia:

 

a.

More likely causes unilateral, localized pain that is sharp or burning in nature

 

b.

Has an increased risk of occurrence in women whose diets are low in fat

 

c.

Occurs most frequently in women who are 18 to 30 years old

 

d.

Is caused by hormonal changes associated with menstruation

Question 31

The incidence of uterine fibroids:

1.     

2.    a.

3.    Increases with age

4.     

5.    b.

6.    Decreases with age

7.     

8.    c.

9.    Is often caused by early menopause

10.  

11. d.

12. Is related to the age of first menses

Question 32

Patients presenting for STI treatment should be screened for HIV:

 

a.

At each visit

 

b.

At the end of treatment

 

c.

At the beginning of treatment

 

d.

Each year

Question 33

1.    What screening recommendation is similar across all groups for colorectal cancer?

2.     

3.    a.

4.    Screening women age 76 to 85 based on risk factors

5.     

6.    b.

7.    Screening only for those women at increased risk

8.     

9.    c.

10. Screening for all women starting at age 50

11.  

12. d.

13. Against routine screening in adults age 76 and over

Question 34

Approximately what percentage of vulvar cancers occur in women older than the age of 50?

 

a.

50%

 

b.

70%

 

c.

85%

 

d.

60%

Question 35

Signs of endometrial or cervical cancer may present abnormal uterine bleeding, often as heavy, prolonged bleeding or:

1.     

2.    a.

3.    Menometrorrhagia

4.     

5.    b.

6.    Amenorrhea

7.     

8.    c.

9.    Oligomenorrhea

10.  

11. d.

12. Polymenorrhea

Question 36

In the GTPAL system for recording pregnancy history, the “T” stands for:

 

a.

Term births

 

b.

Terminal pregnancies

 

c.

Total number of pregnancies

 

d.

Type of birth (spontaneous, assisted, or cesarean)

Question 37

What is now thought to be the most important causative agent in cervical cancer?

 

a.

PCOS

 

b.

Vulvar cancer

 

c.

Herpes simplex

 

d.

HPV

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