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NURS 6512 Final Exam-(Set-2) 100 Q & A, Walden University
NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM, Advanced Health Assessment:
1. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? spinal
2. To assess spinal levels L2, L3, and L4, which deep tendon reflex should be tested? patellar
3. To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the: lightly stroking the inner thigh
4. Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible? dementia
5. When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the pads of the fingers at each site.
6. Palpation of a normal prostate in an older adult is likely to feel: rubbery
7. The difference in blood pressure readings between the right and the left arms is considered normal up to 5mm Hg.
8. Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her: menstrual cycles
9. Cranial nerve XII may be assessed in an infant by: sucking and swallowing
10. While collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: Alcohol, tobacco and caffeine.
11. An idiopathic spasm of arterioles in the digits is termed: Reynaud’s
12. A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is to: pregnancy
13. Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine: state of consciousness
14. The rectal past medical history of all patients should include inquiry about: hemorrhoid surgery
15. To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to: lie on their left sides
16. Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests: dementia
17. Your patient's chief complaint is repeated pencil-like stools. Further examination should include:a digital rectal exam.
18. Kawasaki disease is suspected when assessments of a child reveal:conjunctival injection, strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet.
19. The examiner percusses for diaphragmatic excursion along the: scapular line
20. If pitting edema is unilateral, you would suspect occlusion of a:major vein
21. Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation? fever
22. The Mini-Mental State Examination: Getting lost in familiar territory is a sign of possible cognitive impairment.
23. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: Lens
24. The Denver II is a tool used to determine: whether the child is developing fine and gross motor, language, personal, and social skills as expected according to the .child’s age
25. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: Lordosis
26. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: Bathing
27. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: coordination
28. Inspection of the scrotum should reveal: left lower than the right
29. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is:duck walking.
30. In the most effective percussion technique of the posterior lung fields, the patient cooperates by: crossing arms in front
31. Normal changes of the aging brain include: Diminished touch and pain
32. Ulnar deviation and boutonniere deformities are characteristic of: Rheumatoid arthritis
33. A cervical polyp usually appears as a:bright red, soft protrusion from the endocervical canal.
34. Bimanual examination of the uterus includes:using two hands and external and internal exam?
35. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation?XI
36. Electrical activity recorded by the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that denotes the spread of the stimulus through the atria is the: p wave
37. Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of: Older adults
38. The spread of the impulse through the ventricles (ventricular depolarization) is depicted on the ECG as the: QRS
39. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.'s pattern as: cerebellar ataxia
40. The reliability of health-related findings and observations is the responsibility of the: patient and examiner or professional
41. The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is: inspection
42. The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate:pelvic inflammatory disease.
43. The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include:determining the risk of injury or death during sports participation.
44. A patient in the deepest coma would be scored a __3___ on the Glasgow Coma Scale.
45. The adnexa of the uterus are composed of the: fallopian tubes and the ovaries
46. Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of: pregnant women
47. Palpation of epitrochlear nodes is part of the: upper extremities
48. During chest assessment, you note the patient's voice quality while auscultating the lung fields. The voice sound is intensified, there is a nasal quality to the voice, and the e's sound like a s. This sound is indicative of: bronchial obstruction
49. When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when: irregular bony surfaces rub together
50. Examination of the patient in the lithotomy, or knee-chest, position includes: anal sphincter
51. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical examination is to: let him hold the stethoscope during the exam
52. Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests: cancer
53. A grade IV mitral regurgitation murmur would: (radiates from the apex to base or to left axilla).
54. Breath sounds normally heard over the trachea are called: bronchial
55. Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called: cranial
56. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: plan follow ups
57. You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of: schizophrenia
58. A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful upon palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with: hydrocele
59. Postural hypotension is defined as a 15 mm hg decrease when the patient stands, compared with sitting or supine readings.
60. While examining a 30-year-old woman, you note that one breast is slightly larger than the other. In response to this finding, you should:document in the record
61. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: ask about previous infections
62. An examiner has rotated a brush several times into the cervical os. The brush was withdrawn and stroked lightly on a glass slide. The slide was sprayed with fixative. Which type of specimen requires this technique for collection? Cytology smear
63. When you attempt to move a 10-month-old child from his mother's lap to the examination table, he screams loudly. Your best action is to: let them sit on the mothers lap
64. It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if: deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive
65. Which one of the following is a proper technique for use of a speculum during a vaginal examination? Press the introitus downward, insert the closed speculum obliquely.
66. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce: decreased pain sensation
67. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: symmetry
68. The Mini-Mental State Examination should be administered for the patient who: get lost in their own neighborhood
69. When the Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test is administered to a child, the evaluator principally observes the: Presence and form of body parts.
70. During a routine prenatal visit, Ms. T. was noted as having dependent edema, varicosities of the legs, and hemorrhoids. She expressed concern about these symptoms. You explain to Ms. T. that her enlarged uterus is compressing her pelvic veins and her inferior vena cava. You would further explain that these findings: normal pregnancy
71. An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate: left ventricular hypertrophy
72. Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus? McMurray
73. When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing: sensory
74. Which of the following statements is true regarding the examination of peripheral arteries? Do not use your thumb
75. Tarry black stool should make you suspect: upper gastrointestinal bleed
76. A pulsation that is diminished to the point of being barely palpable would be graded as: 1
77. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by: clenching teeth
[Solved] NURS 6512 Final Exam-(Set-2) 100 Q & A, Walden University
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