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NR 507 Final Exam Study Guide (All Possible Questions and Answers)

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NR 507 Final Exam Study Guide (All Possible Questions and Answers)

  1. ACID BASE IMBALANCE

  • While checking arterial blood gas results, a nurse finds respiratory acidosis. What does the nurse suspect is occurring in the patient?
  • A 20-year-old male is in acute pain. An arterial blood gas reveals decreased carbon dioxide (CO2 ) levels. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause?
  • The nurse is assessing a client with suspected respiratory acidosis. Which assessment items are priority for the nurse to​ collect?
  • The student nurse is assisting in the care for a client with acute respiratory acidosis. The nurse explains to the student nurse that the​ client’s blood pH initially falls in the development of acute respiratory acidosis because of which​ process?
  1. ACTH

  • The nurse is preparing a client for testing to determine if the client has Cushing syndrome. What tests are included in the screening process
  • A client comes to the clinic with fatigue and muscle weakness. The client also states she has been having diarrhea. The nurse observes the skin of the client has a bronze tone and when asked, the client says she has not had any sun exposure. The mucous membranes of the gums are bluish-black. When reviewing laboratory results from this client, what does the nurse anticipate seeing?
  • A client is diagnosed with adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency (ACTH) and is to begin replacement therapy. Regarding which type of replacement will the nurse educate the client?
  • Following destruction of the pituitary gland, ACTH stimulation stops. Without ACTH to stimulate the adrenal glands, the adrenals’ production of cortisol drops. This is an example of which type of endocrine disorder?
  • The nurse is preparing a client for a test that will measure negative feedback suppression of ACTH. Which medication will the nurse administer in conjunction for this test?
  • ACTH deficiency results in secondary 
  • ACTH deficiency is most commonly caused by?
  • 6 symptoms of an ACTH deficiency
  • interpretation of ACTH levels requires simultaneous assessment of
  • ACTH levels are normal to high in primary adrenal insufficiency
  • ACTH levels are low to absent in secondary adrenal insufficiency
  • The client has been taking an oral cortisol preparation for 2 years to manage an autoimmune disease. What effects does the nurse expect this therapy to have on this client’s circulating levels of ACTH and aldosterone?
  • A nurse checks lab results as both Cushing syndrome and Addison disease can manifest with elevated levels of:
  1. ACUTE EPIGLOTTITIS

  • A caregiver calls the pediatrician’s office and reports to the nurse that her 4-year-old, who was fine the previous day, complained of a sore throat early in the morning and now has a temperature of 102.6° F (39.2° C). The caregiver has tried to get the child to nap but the child gets panicky, immediately sits back up, and leans forward with her mouth open and tongue out when the caregiver encourages her to lie down. The nurse suspects the child has which of the following conditions?
  • The caregivers of a child report that their child had a cold and complained of a sore throat. When interviewed further they report that the child has a high fever, is very anxious, and is breathing by sitting up and leaning forward with the mouth open and the tongue out. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as those seen with which of the following disorders?
  • A 5-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his father because the child developed a high fever over the past 2 to 3 hours. The nurse suspects epiglottitis based on which signs and symptoms?
  • The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old girl who shows signs and symptoms of epiglottitis. The nurse recognizes a common complication of the disorder is for the child to:
  1. AIDS

  • A 36-year-old man enters the hospital in an extremely debilitated condition. He has purple-brown skin lesions (a symptom of Kaposi’s sarcoma) and a persistent cough. A physical examination reveals swollen lymph nodes, and laboratory tests find a very low lymphocyte count. Information taken during the personal history reveals that he has multiple sex partners with whom he frequently engages in unprotected sex. What is likely to be the man’s problem and what is his prognosis?
  • Why does nursing care of a patient with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) include monitoring of T lymphocyte counts?
  • What is the length of time from infection with the AIDS virus to seroconversion?
  • A 21-year-old woman diagnosed with HIV/AIDS 4 years ago now presents with cytomegalovirus. The nurse explains to the woman that the infection is caused by a common organism that normally does not cause infection in someone with a healthy immune system. This type of infection is called what?
  • The nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with AIDS. The client asks the nurse, “How long will I live?” Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
  • Which of the following clients is at the greatest risk for developing an intracellular pathogen infection?
  1. ALVEOLAR VENTILATION/PERFUSION

  • A consequence of alveolar hypoxia is:
  • The pressure required to inflate an alveolus is inversely related to:
  • The nurse is describing the movement of blood into and out of the 
    capillary beds of the lungs to the body organs and tissues. What term 
    should the nurse use to describe this process?
  • A pulmonologist is discussing the base of the lungs with staff. Which 
    information should be included? At the base of the lungs:
  • When the pulmonologist discusses the condition in which a series of alveoli in the left lower lo
  • be receive adequate ventilation but do not have adequate perfusion, which statement indicates the nurse understands this condition? When this occurs in a patient it is called:
  • Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypoventilation?
  • A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of emphysema. Which information should the nurse include? Emphysema results in:
  1. ALZHEIMER’S DISEASE

  • A patient is admitted to the unit in the middle stages of Alzheimer’s disease. How would the nurse expect to find the patient’s state of mind?
  • When teaching the children of a patient who is being evaluated for Alzheimer’s disease (AD) about the disorder, the nurse explains that
  • The patient has been diagnosed with the mild cognitive impairment stage of Alzheimer’s disease. What nursing interventions should the nurse expect to use with this patient?
  • A patient with Alzheimer’s disease (AD) dementia has manifestations of depression. The nurse knows that treatment of the patient with antidepressants will most likely do what?
  • The wife of a patient who is manifesting deterioration in memory asks the nurse whether her husband has AD. The nurse explains that a diagnosis of AD is usually made when what happens?
  1. ANGIOTENSIN-RENIN SYSTEM

  • The nurse recognizes that the action of angiotensin II is what?
  • The nurse understands that aldosterone secretion is increased when the patient has what?
  • With what does the nurse correlate the release of renin?
  • What are the 2 most common causes that activate the RAAS system?
  • The goal of the RAAS system is to increase BP to thus help restore perfusion pressure to the kidneys
  1. ANTIBODIES, IGG, IGA, ETC

  • A patient has a parasite. Which lab report should the nurse check to help confirm this diagnosis?
  • If a patient has a typical secondary immune response, which antibody is most predominant?
  • A mother is breastfeeding her infant. The nurse realizes the main antibody being transferred from the mother to her infant through the breast milk is:
  • When a person has a life-threatening hypersensitivity/allergic reaction to bee stings, which lab result will the nurse check
  • Which immunity principle should guide the nurse when caring for an infant? At birth, IgG levels in newborn infants are:
  • While reviewing a patients’ immunological profile, which immunoglobulin does the nurse expect to see elevated if the patient has a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
  • The antibody that becomes bound to mast cells and basophils and causes the cells to release histamine and other chemicals is 
  • In teaching a patient with SLE about the disorder, the nurse knows that the pathophysiology of SLE includes
  • A patient is diagnosed with a hypersensitivity reaction mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies. For which type of hypersensitivity reaction should the nurse plan care for this patient? Type 12
  1. AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT DISEASES

  • A nurse is assessing a patient with an autosomal-dominant inherited condition. When discussing the risk of transmission to the patient’s offspring, which of the following would the nurse include?
  • A client has an autosomal-dominant disorder. His wife is unaffected. When explaining the risk for inheritance of the disorder in their offspring, which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?
  • The daughter of a patient with Huntington disease has requested that she be tested for the disease even though she has no symptoms at this time. What type of test does the nurse anticipate the physician will order?
  • Which of the following risk factors have been linked to ovarian cancers? Select all that apply.
  • A late acting dominant disorder is:
  • Huntignton’s chorea is characterised by
  • Dancing gait and bizarre grimacing are characteristics of:
  • The RN is reading the chart of a new pt. at the genetic clinic. The chart notes that the pt., her brother, and her mother all have inherited a particular condition. The RN plans care for a condition with which of the following type of inheritance pattern?
  1. BARTHOLIN GLANDS

  • A woman visits her primary care provider with a complaint of pain and swelling in the vagina area. The pain is present when she sits and walks intercourse is painful. The nurse prepares the patient for an examination. The nurse and health care provider suspect that the patient may have an inflammation or infection of the?
  • A patient has been diagnosed with a Bartholin gland cyst. The nurse expects the patient may experience which symptoms if this becomes infected?
  • The female external genitalia are made up of several components. What is in the vestibule of the female external genitalia?
  • When performing a pelvic examination, the nurse observes a red swollen area on the right side of the vaginal orifice. The nurse would document this as enlargement of which of the following?
  1. BILE SALT DEFICIENCIES

  • Clinical manifestations of bile salt deficiencies are related to poor absorption of:
  1. CANDIDIASIS EXACERBATION

  • Samantha Velasquez, a 24-year-old preschool teacher, is being seen by the physician in the primary care group where you practice nursing. Over the past 2 months, she has been receiving treatment for multiple ear infections and tonsillitis. She reports a curdy white vaginal discharge and burning with urination. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
  • A nurse is counseling a client about risk factors for yeast infections. Which of the following should the nurse list as a risk factor for an overgrowth of Candida albicans? 
  1. CARBUNCLES

  • Localized skin infection involving hair follicles:
  1. CARCINOMA

  • A nurse is conducting a session on education about cancers of the reproductive tract and is explaining the importance of visiting a health care professional if certain unusual symptoms appear. Which should the nurse include in her list of symptoms that merit a visit to a health care professional for further evaluation
  • The postmenopausal woman who has bleeding and spotting and cannot tolerate a endometrial biopsy in the office would expect to have which of the following tests done to rule out endometrial cancer?
  • The nursing student correctly identifies which of the following to be the treatment of choice for endometrial cancer?
  • The nursing student correctly identifies which of the following age group to be when ovarian cancer occurs more frequently?
  • Treatment for Stage IA (Microinvasive Carcinoma) is?
  • An aide asks the nurse what is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. How should the nurse respond?
  • The nurse working with oncology clients understands that interacting factors affect cancer development. Which factors does this include?
  • A nurse is providing community education on the seven warning signs of cancer. Which signs are included
  • The nursing instructor explains the difference between normal cells and benign tumor cells. What information does the instructor provide about these cells?
  • The nursing student learning about cancer development remembers characteristics of normal cells. Which characteristics does this include?
  • The student nurse caring for clients who have cancer understands that the general consequences of cancer include which client problems?
  1. CERVICAL DYSPLASIA

  • The nurse is caring for a woman who has dysplasia (disordered growth of abnormal cells). The nurse educates her on dysplasia progression that is high-grade. Which of the following information is important for the nurse to include?
  • Prime etiologic factor in the development of dysplasia
  • Cervical dysplasia and cancer is relatively rare before …. years of age, and the mean age is about …. years.
  • After speaking with the RN, Mrs. Sailor understands that the endocervical biopsy will be done by cervical conization to allow for microscopic examination of the cervical tissue. She is scheduled for cervical conization in 2 day. How should the RN respond to the client?
  • How often should a Pap and HPV be done
  1. CERVICAL IMMUNOGLOBULIN

  • A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will hurt the fetus. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true?
  1. CHICKEN POX

  • An older adult client tells the nurse that her granddaughter has chickenpox. The client is afraid to visit because she is afraid of getting shingles from her granddaughter. What is the nurse’s best response?
  • The nurse counsels the parent of a 12 year old diagnosed with chickenpox about when the child can return to school. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the parent makes which statement?
  • A parent calls the clinic to report that the child has been exposed to varicella zoster (chicken pox). The nurse should tell the parent that the incubation period for chickenpox is which length of time?
  1. CHRONIC INFLAMMATORY JOINT DISEASE

  • In assessing the joints of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse understands that the joints are damaged by
  • Assessment data in the patient with osteoarthritis commonly include
  • The nurse is working with a 73-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA). In assessing the patient’s understanding of this disorder, the nurse concludes teaching has been effective when the patient describes the condition as which of the following
  • A 60-year-old woman has pain on motion in her fingers and asks the nurse whether this is just a result of aging. The best response by the nurse includes the information that
    The basic pathophysiologic process of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is
  • During the physical assessment of the patient with moderate RA, the nurse would expect to find
  • After teaching a patient with RA about the prescribed therapeutic regimen, the nurse determines that further instruction is needed when the patient says,
  • A 70-year old patient is being evaluated for symptoms of RA. The nurse recognizes that a major problem in the management of RA in the older adult is that
  1. CLONAL SELECTION

  • When a nurse uses the term clonal diversity, what is the nurse describing?
  • Which of the following statements indicates the nurse has a good understanding of clonal selection?
  • Cytokines that stimulate bone marrow pluripotent stem and progenitor or precursor cells to produce large numbers of platelets, erythrocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils, and monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and dendritic cells are known as:
  1. COMPLICATIONS OF GASTRIC RESECTION SURGERY

  • Care for the postoperative client after gastric resection should focus on which of the following problems?
  • Which of the following complications of gastric resection should the nurse teach the client to watch for?
  1. CONCEPT OF PAIN

  • The nurse is using the neuromatrix theory when determining a​ patient’s pain. What should the nurse consider when assessing a​ patient’s pain?
  • The patient complaining of pain has been waiting for medication to relieve the pain. What should the nurse understand about this​ patient?
  • The nurse is assessing a​ patient’s pain perception. What should the nurse use to make this​ assessment?
  • A patient is being treated for chronic pain. What should the nurse keep in mind when assessing this​ patient’s level of​ pain?
  • A patient is seen talking and laughing in the​ clinic’s waiting room yet complains of excruciating pain. What should the nurse realize this patient is​ demonstrating?
  1. CONGENITAL HEART DEFECTS

  • The comment made by a parent of a 1-month-old that would alert the nurse about the presence of a congenital heart defect is:
  • The nurse explains that which congenital cardiac defect(s) cause(s) increased pulmonary blood flow?
  • A newborn is diagnosed with a congenital heart defect (CHD). The test results reveal
    that the lumen of the duct between the aorta and pulmonary artery remains open.
    This defect is known as patent
  • Congenital heart defects (CHDs) are classified by which of the following? 
  • Hypoxic spells in the infant with a congenital heart defect (CHD) can cause which of
    the following? 
  • A 6-month-old who has episodes of cyanosis after crying could have the congenital heart defect (CHD) of decreased pulmonary blood flow called
  • While looking through the chart of an infant with a congenital heart defect (CHD) of decreased pulmonary blood flow, the nurse would expect which laboratory finding?
  • In which congenital heart defect (CHD) would the nurse need to take upper and lower extremity BPs?
  1. CONGENITAL INTRINSIC FACTOR DEFICIENCY

  • A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
  • A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in intrinsic factor is the most likely cause.
  1. CONGENITAL MURMURS

  • While assessing a newborn with respiratory distress, the nurse auscultates a machine-like
    heart murmur. Other findings are a wide pulse pressure, periods of apnea, increased PaCO2, and decreased PO2. The nurse suspects that the newborn has:
  • A 2-day-old infant was just diagnosed with aortic stenosis. What is the most likely nursing assessment finding?
  • A newborn develops a murmur and cyanosis shortly after birth. She is diagnosed with pulmonic stenosis (PS) after an echocardiogram revealed narrowing of the pulmonary:
  1. CONSANGUINITY

  • most common types of relationships in a family
  • blood relationship: What specific consequences are there for consanguinity
  1. CROUP

  • The 3-year-old child is seen in the local clinic for croup. The child’s parents ask the nurse what to do for the child at home to alleviate symptoms. Which suggestions by the nurse is most appropriate?
  • The nurse is assessing a child with croup in the emergency department. The child has a sore throat and is drooling. Examining the child’s throat using a tongue depressor might precipitate what condition?
  • The mother of a 20-month-old boy tells the nurse that he has a barking cough at night. His temperature is 37° C (98.6° F). The nurse suspects mild croup and should recommend which intervention?
  • A 3-year-old child woke up in the middle of the night with a croupy cough and inspiratory stridor. The parents bring the child to the emergency department, but by the time they arrive, the cough is gone, and the stridor has resolved. What can the nurse teach the parents with regard to this type of croup?
  1. DERMATOLOGIC CONDITIONS E.G. PITYRIASIS ROSEA

  • The physician instructs a mother to take her child out in the sun for approximately an hour or until the skin turns red (not sunburned). This is a common medical treatment for
  • The patient has a rash on her back that began about 10 days ago with a raised, scaly border and a pink center. Now she has similar eruptions on both sides of her back. From these signs, the nurse would determine the rash to be
  • A 28-year-old client comes to the office for evaluation of a rash. At first there was only one large patch, but then more lesions erupted suddenly on the back and torso; the lesions itch. Physical examination reveals that the pattern of eruption is like a Christmas tree and that various erythematous papules and macules are on the cleavage lines of the back. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. DERMATOLOGY TERMINOLOGY-MACULES, NEVI, ETC

  • The nurse’s assessment shows that the patient has a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. In the documentation the nurse would chart this as a
  • While waiting to see the physician, a patient shows the nurse skin areas that are flat, nonpalpable, and have had a change of color. The nurse recognizes that the patient is demonstrating what?
  • A young student comes to the school nurse and shows the nurse a mosquito bite. As the nurse expects, the bite is elevated and has serous fluid contained in the dermis. How would the nurse classify this lesion?
  1. ENDOGENOUS ANTIGEN

  • When a patient asks what activates the immune response, how should the nurse respond? Molecules that are capable of inducing an immune response are called:
  • A nurse is discussing an endogenous antigen. Which example indicates the nurse has a good understanding?
  • A nurse recalls the major histocompatibility class I (MHC I) antigens are found on which of the following cells?
  • While the nurse is discussing the immune system, which information should the nurse include? Plasma cells have the capacity to produce antibodies during an immune response.
  • Which cell is a patient missing if the patient’s immune system cannot ingests microorganisms for the purposes of presenting their antigen to the immune system and activating an immune response?
  • A nursing student comes to the nurse with some questions about receptors. The student asks about the location of CD8 receptors. The nurse tells the student that these are located on:
  • Which class of MHC proteins presents exogenous antigens?
  • Class II MHC proteins are found on which of the following cell types?
  • Class I MHC proteins are recognized by which of the following cell types (that are destined to become T cells)?
  • Which major class of lymphocytes become cytotoxic T cells?
  1. FOLATE DEFICIENCY

  • The nurse recognizes that patients with which disorder are at greatest risk for folate deficiency?
  • A person has an inadequate intake of folic acid (folate) what wil happen to this persons RBCs. 
  • The nurse teaches the breastfeeding patient that the recommended daily allowance for folic acid is what?
  • A 2-year-old malnourished child has vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies. A blood smear suggests the deficiency is macrocytic and normochromic. The nurse would expect the hemoglobin to be:
  • When a patient wants to know why vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies cause anemia, how should the nurse respond?
  • The nurse reviews the medications of a patient taking folic acid. The nurse notes that the patient is concurrently taking vitamin B12. This concerns the nurse because of the fact that folic acid may
  1. GASTROESOPHAGEAL REFLUX DISEASE

  • A patient comes to the clinic complaining of heartburn after meals and is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which dietary instructions should the nurse include in teaching?
  • Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus?
  • A patient describes a burning sensation in the esophagus, pain when swallowing, and frequent indigestion. What does the nurse suspect that these clinical manifestations indicate?
  • A 50-year-old male is experiencing reflux of chyme from the stomach. He is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux. This condition is caused by:
  1. GENERAL ADAPTATION SYNDROME

  • Increased blood volume, heart rate, blood glucose levels, and increased mental alertness occur during which part of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
  • While assessing a person for effects of the general adaptation syndrome, the nurse should be aware that:
  • A client with cancer has recovered from tumor removal surgery and is now stable while undergoing a chemotherapy treatment schedule. She is not having any symptoms at this time and is continuing to work and enjoy social events. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) would you place her in?
  1. GENETIC DISORDERS SUCH AS DOWN SYNDROME, TURNER SYNDROME, ETC

  • Which type of genetic test would be used to detect the possibility of Down syndrome?
    The nurse is obtaining health history from a client with a genetic disorder. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to establish the pattern of inheritance?
  • The nurse is assessing a child with Turner syndrome. The nurse anticipates which of the following findings?
  • Parents request that a test be done to determine if the fetus has Down syndrome. What type of test does the nurse anticipate the physician will order?
  • Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses?
  • The nurse is working with a mother whose unborn child was diagnosed as having Down syndrome. The nurse explains to the mother that Down syndrome occurs due to which of the following?
  • Match the condition with chromosomal abnormlity or linkage.
  • Trisomy 21 is otherwise called:
  • Down’s syndrome is due to:
  • In Down’s syndrome, the chromosome number in each cell is:
  • The risk of Down’s syndrome in offsprings is high to mothers at the age of:
  • Persons with Klinfelter’s syndrome have chromosomes:
  • Turner’s syndrome is characterised by chromosomes:
  • A person having Klinfelter’s syndrome is characterised by:
  1. GENITAL WARTS

  • During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware of any problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be:
  • A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV, or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for
  • During a health history, a 22-year old woman asks, “Can I get that vaccine for HPV? I have genital warts and I’d like them to go away!” What is the nurse’s best response?
  • a patient with an STD who is most likely to have a nursing diagnosis of disturbed image that hinders future sexual relationships is the patient with
  • it is most important for the nurse to teach the female patient with genital warts to
  • A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?
  1. GI SYMPTOMS OF CONDITIONS SUCH AS PYLORIC STENOSIS, HIATAL HERNIA, ULCERATIVE COLITIS

  • The nurse explains to the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease that this disorder:
  • The client with a hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals. The nurse planc to teach the client to avoid which action because it is contraindicated with hiatal hernia?
  • The client is diagnosed with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Which inter- vention should the nurse implement? 
  • Which of the following factors would most likely contribute to the development of a client’s hiatal hernia? 
  • The client asks the nurse whether he will need surgery to correct his hiatal hernia. Which reply by the nurse would be most accurate? 
  • A client with ulcerative colitis (UC) has stage 1 of a restorative proctocolectomy with ileo-anal anastomosis (RPC-IPAA) procedure performed. The client asks the nurse, “How long do people with this procedure usually have a temporary ileostomy?” How does the nurse respond?
  • The nurse is caring for a patient with fulminant ulcerative colitis. The nurse would be alert for which of the following symptoms associated with severe fulminant ulcerative colitis?
  • Which of the following clients would the nurse suspect to have pyloric stenosis?
  • A 3-week-old infant diagnosed with pyloric stenosis is admitted to the hospital during a vomiting episode. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
  • Which of the following conditions can cause a hiatal hernia?
  1. GI SYMPTOMS RESULTING IN HEART BURN

  • The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which signs and symptoms would indicate GERD? 
  • The male client tells the nurse he has been experiencing “heartburn” at night that awakens him. Which assessment question should the nurse ask? 
  • The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client who has a sliding hiatal hernia associated with reflux. The nurse should ask the client about the presence of which of the following symptoms?
  • Which of the following symptoms is common with a hiatal hernia?
  1. GLAUCOMA

  • A client has just been diagnosed with early glaucoma. During a teaching session, the nurse should:
  • The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with glaucoma. Which of the following would alert the nurse to suspect that the client was at increased risk for this disorder?
  • Which of the following types of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency?
  • The nurse is performing an assessment of the visual fields for a patient with glaucoma. When assessing the visual fields in acute glaucoma, what would the nurse expect to find?
  • A 52-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up examination after being diagnosed with glaucoma. The client states, “I’m hoping that I don’t have to use these drops for very long.” Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
  •  patient visits a clinic for an eye examination. He describes his visual changes and mentions a specific diagnostic clinical sign of glaucoma. What is that clinical sign?
  1. GLOMERULONEPHRITIS

  • A 15-year-old male was diagnosed with pharyngitis. Eight days later he developed acute glomerulonephritis. While reviewing the culture results, which of the following is the most likely cause of this disease?
  • When a nurse observes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as a diagnosis on a patient, which principle will the nurse remember? Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is primarily caused by?
  • A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is?
  • A 15-year-old female presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever. Tests reveal glomerulonephritis. When the parents ask what could have caused this, how should the nurse respond?
  • Which of the following clusters of symptoms would make a clinician suspect a child has developed glomerulonephritis?
  • A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. History reveals that he had an infection 3 week before the onset of this condition. The infection was most likely located in the
  • A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is?
  • A 45-year-old male presents with oliguria. He is diagnosed with chronic glomerulonephritis. The nurse knows oliguria is related to?
  • Which assessment finding is most important in determining nursing care for a client with acute glomerulonephritis?
  • The nurse is assessing a child with acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess?
  • A 10-year-old child is diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Test reveal the disposition of immunonoglobin IgA in the glomerular capillaries. The nurse will monitor for recurrent:
  • …………..is an autoimmune disease that severely impairs renal function.
  • When reviewing laboratory results, the nurse should immediately notify the health care provider about which finding?
  1. GLYCOPROTEIN ( THIS IS THE ONLY ONE I COULD NOT FIND

  2. GONOCOCCAL DISEASE

  • When counseling a woman who is having difficulty conceiving, the nurse will be most concerned about a history of infection
  • When a patient returns to the clinic for follow-up after treatment for nongonococcal urethritis, a purulent urethral discharge is still present. When-trying to determine the reason for the recurrent infection, which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the patient?
  • A woman in the STD clinic tells the nurse that she is concerned she may have been exposed to gonorrhea by her partner. To determine whether the patient has gonorrhea, the nurse will plan to obtain a cervical specimen for an
  • The nurse assesses a client in the family planning clinic. Which of the following statements, if made by a client, suggests to the nurse that the client has been exposed to gonorrhea?
  • a female patient with a purulent vaginal discharge is seen at the outpatient clinic. The nurse would expect a diagnosis of gonorrhea to
  • A 22-year-old male is being treated at a college health care clinic for gonorrhea. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse include in patient teaching?
  • The client is single, admits to not using condoms during sexual intercourse, and has had multiple partners over the past year. Which of the following symptoms would alert the nurse to a possible gonorrheal infection? 
  • A newborn is diagnosed with ophthalmic neonatorum. The nurse understands that this newborn was exposed to which infection?
  1. GUILLAIN-BARRE SYNDROME

  • patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome has experienced a sharp decline in vital capacity. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action?
  • nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome is planning care with regard to the clinical manifestations associated this syndrome. The nurse’s communication with the patient should reflect the possibility of what sign or symptom of the disease
  • The nurse caring for a patient in ICU diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome should prioritize monitoring for what potential complication
  • nurse is teaching a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome about the disease. patient asks how he can ever recover if demyelination of his nerves is occurring. the nurse’s best response
  • The nurse recognizes which pathophysiologic feature as a hallmark of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
  • The nurse correlates which clinical manifestation of Guillain-Barré syndrome as the most common?
  • In reviewing laboratory data on a client, the nurse correlates which findings with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)?
  • A nurse is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome who has been admitted to the intensive care unit. During the last 2 hours, the nurse notes that the client’s vital capacity has declined to 12 mL/kg, and the client is having difficulty clearing secretions. Which is the nurse’s priority action?
  • A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome asks the nurse what has caused the disease. In responding to the patient, the nurse explains that Guillain-Barré syndrome
  • A 29 -year-old patient is hospitalized with the onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome. During this phase of the patient’s illness, the most essential assessment for the nurse to carry out is
  • Guillain-Barré syndrome is an autoimmune attack on the peripheral myelin sheath. Which of the following is an action of myelin?
  1. HORMONAL REGULATION OF CALCIUM

  • When evaluating the laboratory findings of a patient with decreased function of the anterior pituitary gland, the nurse would expect to find
  • When teaching a patient with hypoparathyroidism about the disorder, the nurse explains that blood calcium levels are altered because the role of parathyroid hormone is to
  • Parathyroid hormone (PTH) has which effects on the kidney?
  • Which serum laboratory result should the nurse monitor in a patient with primary hyperparathyroidism?
  1. HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION

  • A patient had a hypersensitivity reaction involving the formation of antibodies against tissue-specific antigen. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction did the patient experience?
  • A patient has a hypersensitivity reaction mediated by Tc cells. A nurse recalls that this type of hypersensitivity reaction is called:
  • The patient is having a reaction to a bee sting. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction does the nurse expect to see documented in the patient’s chart?
  • Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by the formation of antigen-antibody complexes deposited on vessel walls or in extravascular tissues?
  • The nurse is interpreting a patient’s positive tuberculin skin test. This finding is consistent with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
  • A nurse is conducting a physical assessment on a patient. Which symptoms would indicate to the nurse that the patient experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
  • The nurse is concerned about the patient having tissue injury during type II hypersensitivity. Which mechanism provides the rationale for this concern?
  • The patient has a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. In planning care for this patient, the nurse should consider that this type of reaction is related to:
  • Type IV hypersensitivity tissue effects are initiated by:
  • …………..is the most common type of immediate hypersensitivity.
  1. KIDNEY STONES

  • A client presents to the emergency department complaining of a dull, constant ache along the right costovertebral angle along with nausea and vomiting. The most likely cause of the client’s symptoms is:
  • The nurse reviews a client’s history and notes that the client has a history of hyperparathyroidism. The nurse would identify that this client most likely would be at risk for which of the following?
  • Which of the following are appropriate interventions in the care of a patient diagnosed with renal calculi?
  • A nurse is administering medications to a patient with a kidney stone. Which medication does the nurse administer that will lower urinary calcium by increasing tubular reabsorption to decrease the amount of calcium in the urine?
  • Which of the following is a nonsurgical method of treatment for renal calculi (kidney stones)?
  • A patient is being treated with colchicine (Colcrys) for pain in the big right toe. The patient begins to complain of severe right flank pain and is diagnosed with kidney stones. Which of the following types of kidney stones does the nurse recognize this patient is most likely affected by?
  • A patient has chronic hyperparathyroidism. Which complication should the nurse monitor for in the patient?
  • While planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is:
  1. LACTOSE INTOLERANCE

  • During the nursing assessment a patient reveals that he has diarrhea and cramping every time he has ice cream. He attributes this to the cold nature of the food. However, the nurse begins to suspect that these symptoms are associated with:
  • A client receiving enteral feedings develops abdominal distention and diarrhea shortly after initiation of the feedings. In review of the nursing history for this client, which of these notations indicates the need to notify the health care provider?
  • is working with a client with lactose intolerance. What can this nurse suggest to this client to increase tolerance to small amounts of milk?
  • People who have lactose intolerance suffer from bloating, gas, and diarrhea. What type of diarrhea is caused by lactose intolerance?
  1. LARGE BOWEL OBSTRUCTION

  • The nurse is taking a health history of a newly admitted patient with a diagnosis Rule/out bowel obstruction. Which of the following is the priority question to ask the patient?
  • You are admitting a patient with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. A bowel obstruction is suspected. You assess this patient for which anticipated primary acid-base imbalance if the obstruction is high in the intestine?
  1. LOSS OF LANGUAGE AND/OR COMPREHENSION-SUCH AS TERMS-APHASIA, ETC.

  • The nurse is planning health teaching for a 65-year-old woman who has had a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) and has aphasia. Which of these questions is most important to use when assessing mental status in this patient?
  • The nurse discovers speech problems in a patient during an assessment. The patient has spontaneous speech, but it is mostly absent or is reduced to a few stereotypical words or sounds. This finding reflects which type of aphasia?
  • The nurse is caring for a patient with dysphagia. Which of the following interventions would be contraindicated while caring for this patient?
  • The nurse is caring for a patient with aphasia. Which of the following strategies will the nurse use to facilitate communication with the patient?
  • A patient has been diagnosed as having global aphasia. The nurse recognizes that the patient will be unable to do which of the following actions?
  • A patient with a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) has left-sided flaccidity and is unable to speak but seems to understand everything the nurse says. Which term should the nurse use to document the patient’s communication impairment
  • A patient tells the nurse that at times it seems like the mouth muscles do not want to work and the patient’s speech is slurred. What should the nurse realize that the patient is describing?
  1. LUPUS

  • A 26-year-old woman has been diagnosed with early systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) involving her joints. In teaching the patient about the disease, the nurse includes the information that SLE is a(n):
  • A patient with polyarthralgia with joint swelling and pain is being evaluated for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse knows that the serum test result that is the most specific for SLE is the presence of:
  • A client is suspected of having systemic lupus erythematous. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following is one of the initial characteristic sign of systemic lupus erythematous?
  • The nurse is assigned to care for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The-nurse plans care knowing that this disorder is:
  1. MALE AND FEMALE SEX HORMONE PRODUCTION

  • The nurse is conducting a prenatal class for expectant parents on conception. The nurse provides additional teaching when a parent states which of the following?
  • A human male produces sperms with genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab in equal proportions. What is the genotype of the person?
  • Females seldom become bald as they lack:
  • A 30-year-old female patient was brought to the emergency department (ED) after a seizure at work. During the assessment she mentions hair loss and menstrual irregularities. What diagnostic tests would be helpful to determine if endocrine problems are a cause of her problem
  • Which hormone is best described by “tropic hormone that stimulates the gonads to secrete sex hormones”?
  • The external and internal female reproductive organs develop and mature in response to what hormones?
  • Ovarian hormones include which of the following?
  • The nurse working with pediatric clients knows that the primary hormone secretions that induce puberty include which of the following?
  1. MATERNAL IMMUNE SYSTEM

  • If a patient has a typical secondary immunity response, which antibody is most predominant
  • A mother is diagnosed with a bacterial infection and is worried that her newborn infant will also contract the infection. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching plan for the client?
  • The laboratory finds IgA in a sam
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[Solved] NR 507 Final Exam Study Guide (All Possible Questions and Answers)

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