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NURSING 6501 FINAL EXAM / QUIZBANK WK 3 FINAL: ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY WK 3: Walden University

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ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY WK 3

CHAPTER 13 Structure and Function of the Neurologic System

1.

When a patient asks what the somatic nervous system controls, how should the nurse respond? It controls:
 

a. the heart.
b. the spinal cord.
c. skeletal muscle.
d. smooth muscle organs.

 

2.

A nurse is preparing to teach about nerves. Which information should the nurse include? The axon leaves the cell body at the:
 

a. axon hillock.
b. Nissl body.
c. node of Ranvier.
d. myelin sheath.

 

3.

When a student asks in which region of the neuron do nerve impulses travel the fastest, how should the nurse respond? The:
 

a. large axon.
b. axon hillock.
c. cell body.
d. dendrites.

 

4.

A neurologist is teaching the staff about motor neurons. Which structural classification identifies motor neurons?
 

a. Unipolar
b. Pseudounipolar
c. Bipolar
d. Multipolar

 

5.

An experiment looking at an isolated neuron revealed a sensory nerve with one process containing a dendritic portion extending away from the CNS and an axon extending toward the CNS. Which of the following classifications would this neuron fall into?
a. Bipolar
b. Multipolar
c. Pseudounipolar
d. Interpolar

 

 

6.

A cell was isolated from the CNS. A researcher revealed that its main function was to clear cellular debris. What type of cell is the researcher studying?
a. Astrocyte
b. Ependymal cell
c. Microglia
d. Schwann cell

 

 

7.

Which neurons have the capacity for regeneration?
a. Unmyelinated neurons in the brain
b. Myelinated neurons in the spinal cord
c. Myelinated peripheral neurons
d. Postganglionic motor neurons

 

 

8.

When a presynaptic neuron is stimulated in a patient's body by an electrical current, neurotransmitters are released from the:
a. synapse.
b. synaptic bouton.
c. synaptic cleft.
d. receptor.

 

 

9.

Neurotransmitters interact with the postsynaptic membrane by binding to which structure?
a. Receptor
b. Nissl body
c. Glial cell
d. Neurofibril

 

 

10.

If a neuron's membrane potential is held close to the threshold potential by excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs), the neuron is said to be:
a. hyperpolarized.
b. facilitated.
c. integrated.
d. inhibited.

 

 

11.

A patient brought to the emergency room (ER) with severe burns is requesting something for the excruciating pain and is medicated with morphine, which blocks which of the following neurotransmitters, thus reducing the pain?
a. Enkephalin
b. Dopamine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Substance P

 

 

12.

A 19-year-old college student reports to his primary care provider that he cannot stay awake in class regardless of how much sleep he gets. Under-stimulation of which area of the brain is likely the site of the problem?
a. Corpora quadrigemina
b. Reticular activating system
c. Cerebellum
d. Hypothalamus

 

 

 

13.

After rehabilitation for severe brain damage following a motor vehicle accident, a patient reports that her thought processes and ability to concentrate are impaired. Which area does the nurse suspect is damaged?
a. Thalamus
b. Limbic
c. Prefrontal
d. Occipital

 

14.

A neurologist is teaching about the region responsible for motor aspects of speech. Which area is the neurologist discussing?
a. Wernicke area
b. Broca area
c. Brodmann area 4
d. Brodmann area 6

 

15.

A patient is looking at a picture of the brain and points to the convolutions on the surface of the cerebrum. The nurse should tell the patient these are called:
a. sulci.
b. fissures.
c. reticular formations.
d. gyri.

 

16.

Where is the primary visual cortex of the brain located?
a. Frontal lobe
b. Temporal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Parietal lobe

 

17.

A nurse is preparing to teach about functions to maintain homeostasis and instinctive behavioral patterns. Which area of the brain is the nurse discussing?
a. Thalamus
b. Medulla
c. Cerebellum
d. Hypothalamus

 

18.

When a nurse is teaching about the transverse fiber tract that connects the two cerebral hemispheres, what term should the nurse use?
a. Peduncle
b. Corpus callosum
c. Basal ganglia
d. Pons

 

19.

A student nurse asks the nurse what controls reflex activities concerned with heart rate and blood pressure. What is the nurse's best response? These reflex activities are controlled by the:
a. medulla oblongata.
b. pons.
c. midbrain.
d. cerebrum.

 

 

20.

Blockage of which of the following would cause hydrocephalus?
a. Cerebral aqueduct
b. Inferior colliculi
c. Red nucleus
d. Tegmentum

 

21.

A patient presents with altered respiratory patterns following head trauma. Based on the symptoms, which of the following areas does the nurse suspect is injured?
a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Midbrain
d. Reticular formation

 

22.

A nurse recalls that characteristics of upper motor neurons include:
a. directly innervating muscles.
b. influencing and modifying spinal reflex arcs.
c. cell bodies located in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
d. dendritic processes extending out of the CNS.

 

23.

A nurse is teaching about the area of the spinal cord that contains cell bodies involved in the autonomic nervous system. Which of the following areas is the nurse discussing?
a. Anterior horn
b. Ventral horn
c. Lateral horn
d. Dorsal horn

 

24.

A neurologist is teaching about sensory pathways. Which information should the neurologist include? Sensory pathways in the spinal cord to the thalamus are included in the:
a. corticospinal tract.
b. pyramids.
c. spinothalamic tract.
d. anterior column.

 

25.

A nurse is discussing the membrane that separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum. What term should the nurse use to describe this membrane?
a. Tentorium cerebelli
b. Falx cerebri
c. Arachnoid membrane
d. Temporal lobe

 

26.

What term should the nurse use when talking about the outermost membrane surrounding the brain?
a. Dura mater
b. Arachnoid mater
c. Pia mater
d. Falx cerebri

 

27.

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accumulate around the brain when there is injury to the sites of CSF reabsorption, which are called the:
a. arachnoid villi.
b. epidural foramina.
c. lateral apertures.
d. choroid plexuses.

 

 

28.

Which structure ensures collateral blood flow from blood vessels supplying the brain?
a. Carotid arteries
b. Basal artery
c. Circle of Willis
d. Vertebral arteries

 

29.

What type of cell supports the forming of the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
a. Endothelial
b. Schwann
c. Oligodendrocyte
d. Astrocyte

 

30.

When a patient's vagus nerve is stimulated, what does the nurse expect to observe?
a. Increased gastrointestinal activity
b. Increased heart rate
c. Pupil constriction
d. Vasoconstriction

 

31.

A patient suffers from head trauma that affects cranial nerve I. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect?
a. Visual disturbances
b. Loss of sense of smell
c. Loss of ability to taste
d. Hearing disturbances

 

32.

Which neurotransmitter is released when a patient's parasympathetic motor neurons are stimulated?
a. Epinephrine
b. Serotonin
c. Acetylcholine
d. Substance P

 

33.

Which action will occur when a patient's α1-receptors are stimulated?
a. Dilation of the coronary arteries
b. Vasoconstriction of arteries
c. Increase in the strength of myocardial contraction
d. Decrease in the rate of myocardial contraction

 

34.

A patient begins taking a new drug that causes pupil dilation, vasoconstriction, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and goose bumps. Which of the following receptors are activated?
a. α1
b. Α2
c. β1
d. Β2

 

 

35.

The nurse is assessing the patient with a pen light. The integrity of which cranial nerve is being evaluated?
a. Olfactory
b. Vagus
c. Oculomotor
d. Trigeminal

 

36.

Which of the following is a neuroglial cell? (select all that apply)
a. Astrocyte
b. Oligodendrocyte
c. Neuron
d. Ependymal cell
e. Melanocyte

 

37.

A nurse remembers the brain receives approximately ____% of the cardiac output.
a. 80
b. 40
c. 20
d. 10

 

38.

A nurse is monitoring intracranial pressure. A nurse recalls the normal upper limit of intracranial pressure is ____14___ mm Hg.

 

39.

When a patient wants to know how many vertebrae make up the vertebral column, the nurse responds with _33____.

 

40.

Which is an insulating substance for the neuron?
a. Schwann cells
b. Myelin
c. Neuroglial cells
d. Nodes of Ranvier

 

41.

Which part of the brain contains all cell bodies and dendrites of neurons?
a. Gyri
b. Sulci
c. White matter
d. Gray matter

 

42.

It is true that the cerebellum:
a. makes up fibers of the corticospinal tract.
b. maintains balance or posture.
c. controls respiration.
d. contains cranial nerves V through VIII.

 

 

43.

The meninges surrounding the brain comprise the: (select all that apply)

Select all that apply.

a. dura mater.
b. anterior fossa.
c. pia mater.
d. endosteal layer.
e. anterior horn.

 

44.

The central nervous system contains the:
a. brain.
b. somatic nervous system.
c. afferent pathways.
d. cranial nerves.

 

45.

When a patient experiences a brain injury and the medulla oblongata is affected, it is reasonable to expect the client will experience: (select all that apply)

Select all that apply.

a. heart rate changes.
b. alterations in respirations.
c. altered blood pressure.
d. alterations in balance and posture.
e. problems in swallowing.

46.

Successive, rapid impulses received from a single neuron on the same synapse best describes:
a. temporal summation.
b. spatial summation.
c. actuation.
d. facilitation.

47.

Which structure is involved in pain transmission?
a. Posterior horn
b. Substantia gelatinosa
c. Anterior horn
d. Dorsal root ganglia

 

48.

Which is a function of the thalamus?
a. Major integrating center for afferent impulse
b. Maintenance of internal environment
c. Voluntary visual motor movements
d. Movements of the auditory system

 

 

49.

Which is a characteristic of Wallerian degeneration? (select all that apply)

Select all that apply.

a. Swelling
b. Neurofilamental atrophy
c. Myelin sheath shrinkage
d. Axon portion degeneration
e. Overproduction of axons

 

50.

The neurotransmitter released from the postganglionic parasympathetic axon terminal is:
a. acetylcholine.
b. epinephrine.
c. norepinephrine.
d. dopamine.

 

51.

It is true that the brain's Broca speech area:
a. makes receptive responses possible.
b. is responsible for motor speech.
c. when traumatized results in the inability to hear.
d. is found in the right cerebral hemisphere.

 

52.

Which option is composed of endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes?
a. Nissl substances
b. Dendrities
c. Microfilaments
d. Microtubules

 

53.

The major divisions of the brain include: (select all that apply)

Select all that apply.

a. forebrain.
b. cerebrum.
c. midbrain.
d. hindbrain.
e. brainstem.

 

54.

The midbrain contains the:
a. cerebral hemisphere.
b. tegmentum.
c. cerebellum.
d. medulla oblongata.

 

 

CHAPTER 14 Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function

 

1.

A patient asks the nurse where nociceptors can be found. How should the nurse respond? One location in which nociceptors can be found is the:
a. skin.
b. spinal cord.
c. efferent pathways.
d. hypothalamus.

 

2.

A nurse is discussing an individual's conditioned or learned approach or avoidance behavior in response to pain. Which system is the nurse describing?
a. Sensory-discriminative system
b. Affective-motivational system
c. Sensory-motivational system
d. Cognitive-evaluative system

 

3.

A patient scrapes both knees while playing soccer and reports sharp and well-localized pain. Which of the following should the nurse document to most accurately characterize the pain?
a. Chronic pain
b. Referred pain
c. Somatic pain
d. Visceral pain

 

4.

A nurse should document on the chart that chronic pain is occurring when the patient reports the pain has lasted longer than:
a. 1 month.
b. 3-6 months.
c. 1 year.
d. 2-3 years.

 

5.

Several years after an amputation the patient continues to sporadically feel pain in the absent hand. What type of pain should the nurse document in the chart?
a. Neuropathic pain
b. Visceral pain
c. Phantom limb pain
d. Chronic pain

 

6.

When planning care for a child in pain, which principle should the nurse remember? The pain threshold in children is _____ that of adults.
a. higher than
b. more variable
c. the same as
d. not related to

 

 

7.

When the nurse is taking a patient's temperature, which principle should the nurse remember? Regulation of body temperature primarily occurs in the:
a. cerebrum.
b. brainstem.
c. hypothalamus.
d. pituitary gland.

 

8.

When the nurse is discussing the patient's cyclical temperature fluctuation occurring on a daily basis, what term should the nurse use?
a. Thermogenesis cycle
b. Thermoconductive phases
c. Adaptive pattern
d. Circadian rhythm

 

9.

A nurse wants to teach about one of the primary organs responsible for heat production. Which organ should the nurse include?
a. Pancreas
b. Liver
c. Adrenal medulla
d. Heart

 

10.

Heat loss from the body via convection occurs by:
a. evaporation of electromagnetic waves.
b. transfer of heat through currents of liquids or gas.
c. dilation of blood vessels bringing blood to skin surfaces.
d. direct heat loss from molecule-to-molecule transfer.

 

 

11.

For evaporation to function effectively as a means of dissipating excess body heat, which one of the following conditions must be present?
a. Moisture
b. Fever
c. Pyrogens
d. Trauma

 

12.

A patient received a prescription for a weight loss pill. One effect of the pills is to increase the release of epinephrine. Which of the following would be expected to also occur?
a. Decreased vascular tone
b. Increased skeletal muscle tone
c. Increased heat production
d. Decreased basal metabolic rate

 

13.

When a patient has a fever, which of the following thermoregulatory mechanisms is activated?
a. The body's thermostat is adjusted to a lower temperature.
b. Temperature is raised above the set point.
c. Bacteria directly stimulate peripheral thermogenesis.
d. The body's thermostat is reset to a higher level.

 

14.

Exogenous pyrogens are:
a. interleukins.
b. endotoxins.
c. prostaglandins.
d. corticotropin-releasing factors.

 

15.

Hikers are attempting to cross the Arizona desert with a small supply of water. The temperatures cause them to sweat profusely and become dehydrated. The hikers are experiencing:
a. heat cramping.
b. heat exhaustion.
c. heat stroke.
d. malignant hyperthermia.

 

16.

What is the physiological response when the body's core temperature is altered due to prolonged exposure to a cold environment?
a. Increased respirations
b. Ischemic tissue damage
c. CNS excitation
d. Increased cellular metabolism

 

17.

Which finding indicates the patient is having complications from heat stroke?
a. Mild elevation of core body temperatures
b. Cerebral edema and degeneration of the CNS
c. Spasmodic cramping in the abdomen and extremities
d. Alterations in calcium uptake

 

 

18.

Which condition would be treated with therapeutic hypothermia?
a. Malnutrition
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Reimplantation surgery
d. Parkinson disease

 

19.

A patient is undergoing a sleep lab test. When the sleep lab worker notices EEG patterns with brain activity similar to the normal awake pattern, which phase of sleep is occurring?
a. Non-rapid eye movement (REM)
b. Fast wave
c. REM
d. Delta wave

 

20.

Most memorable dreams occur during which sleep phase?
a. Non-REM
b. Alpha wave
c. REM
d. Delta wave

 

21.

During the sleep cycle, when does loss of temperature control occur?
a. Non-REM sleep
b. Light sleep
c. REM sleep
d. Delta wave sleep

 

22.

A 52-year-old male enters a sleep study to gather information about his sleep disturbances. He reports that his wife will not let him sleep in the bed with her until he stops snoring so loudly. He also reports feeling tired a lot through the day. When the nurse checks the chart, what is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Insomnia
b. Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS)
c. Somnambulism
d. Jet-lag syndrome

 

23.

A child suffers from sudden apparent arousals in which she expresses intense fear or other emotion. Her mother reports that she seems to wake screaming, but that she is difficult to waken completely. The child most likely suffers from:
a. night terrors.
b. parasomnia.
c. somnambulism.
d. enuresis episodes.

 

24.

The ophthalmologist is teaching about the structure of the eye that prevents light from scattering in the eye. What structure is the ophthalmologist describing?
a. Iris
b. Pupil
c. Choroid
d. Retina

 

25.

A 50-year-old diabetic patient experiences visual disturbances and decides to visit his primary care provider. After examination, the primary care provider tells the patient that the cells that allow him to see are degenerated. Which of the following structures is most likely damaged?
a. Lens
b. Pupil
c. Cornea
d. Retina


REF: p. 347

26.

A young child presents to the ophthalmologist for visual difficulties secondary to eye deviation. One of the child's eyes deviates inward, thereby decreasing the visual field. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
a. Entropia
b. Extropia
c. Diplopia
d. Nystagmus

 

27.

A patient has increased intraocular pressure. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart?
a. Glaucoma
b. Ocular degeneration
c. Diplopia
d. Nystagmus

 

28.

A 70-year-old patient presents to the primary care provider reporting loss of vision. A history that includes hypertension and cigarette smoking supports which visual diagnosis?
a. Presbyopia
b. Macular degeneration
c. Strabismus
d. Amblyopia

 

29.

Which group of people is most prone to color blindness?
a. Males
b. Females
c. Elderly persons
d. Children

 

30.

A nurse is teaching about the structure that connects the middle ear with the pharynx. Which structure is the nurse describing?
a. Organ of Corti
b. Eustachian tube
c. Semicircular canal
d. Auditory canal

 

31.

The most common form of sensorineural hearing loss in the elderly is:
a. conductive hearing loss.
b. acute otitis media.
c. presbycusis.
d. Ménière disease.

 

32.

A 15-year-old is diagnosed with an outer ear infection. Which of the following is most likely to cause this infection?
a. Haemophilus
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Moraxella catarrhalis
d. Escherichia coli

 

33.

The nurse would expect the patient with an alteration in proprioception to experience vertigo, which is manifested by:
a. headache.
b. light sensitivity.
c. a sensation that the room is spinning.
d. loss of feeling in the lips.

 

34.

Which system modulates a patient's perception of pain?
a. Sensory-discriminative system
b. Affective-motivational system
c. Cognitive-evaluative system
d. Reticular-activating system

 

35.

While planning care for infants, which principles should the nurse remember? (select all that apply) Infants have problems with thermoregulation because they:
a. cannot conserve heat.
b. do not shiver.
c. rarely sweat.
d. have decreased metabolic rates.
e. have excess subcutaneous fat.

 

36.

A patient asks the nurse how often REM sleep occurs. The nurse responds, "About every _____ minutes."
a. 15
b. 30
c. 60
d. 90

 

37.

Endogenous opioids include: (select all that apply)

Select all that apply.

a. enkephalins.
b. endorphins.
c. dynorphins.
d. endomorphins.
e. denkephalins.

 

38.

A patient who was outside on a summer day and is now experiencing increased sweating and thirst, weakness, and dizziness is exhibiting signs of:
a. heat cramps.
b. heat exhaustion.
c. hyperthermic stroke.
d. malignant hyperthermia.

 

39.

A patient who reports that "everything tastes unpleasant" is exhibiting symptoms of:
a. hyposmia.
b. anosmia.
c. hypogeusia.
d. dysgeusia.

 

40.

A benefit of fever to human blood includes:
a. decreased lymphocytic transformation.
b. diminished phagocytosis.
c. increased iron concentration.
d. a switch to lipolysis and proteolysis.

 

41.

Involuntary unilateral or bilateral rhythmic movement of the eyes is referred to as:
a. nystagmus.
b. amblyopia.
c. glaucoma.
d. strabismus.

 

 

42.

The appropriate definition of perceptual dominance is:
a. the duration of time or intensity of pain before overt pain responses are initiated.
b. pain at one location that may cause an increase in threshold at another location.
c. repeated exposure to a pain stimulus.
d. the point at which pain is perceived.

 

43.

It is TRUE that the specificity theory of pain:
a. focuses on the attention of pain.
b. focuses on previous experience of pain.
c. relates the amount of pain to the amount of soft tissue injury.
d. relates to the emotions exhibited toward pain.

 

44.

Which type of hearing loss is a result of foreign body obstruction of the middle ear?
a. Conductive
b. Sensorineural
c. Functional
d. Presbycusis

 

45.

The classification of acute pain includes: (select all that apply)

Select all that apply.

a. acute visceral.
b. pleuritic.
c. referred.
d. acute somatic.
e. cutaneous.

 

46.

The appropriate term for pain that is present in an area distant from its point of origin is:
a. acute pain.
b. chronic pain.
c. referred pain.
d. somatic pain.

 

 

47.

Which pair of structures regulates the complex emotional responses to pain?
a. Frontal and cerebellar lobes
b. Limbic and reticular system
c. Thalamus and brainstem
d. Midbrain and nuclei of thalamus

 

 

48.

A young child presents with redness of the eyes. The parents indicate that this condition seems to be "going around" the daycare. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Blepharitis
b. Keratitis
c. Trachoma
d. Conjunctivitis

 

 

49.

An obese male presents to a sleep clinic complaining of difficulty sleeping. He reports that he wakes gasping for air. Which is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
a. Primary hypersomnia
b. Parasomnia
c. Somnambulism
d. Obstructive sleep apnea

 

 

50.

Which activity has been documented to increase the levels of circulating endogenous endorphins?
a. Cough
b. Stress
c. Sleep
d. Pain

 

 

51.

Which mechanism does not result in heat loss?
a. Increased respiration
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Vasoconstriction

 

 

 

CHAPTER 15 Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral Hemodynamics, and Motor Function

1.

A neurologist explains that arousal is mediated by the:
a. cerebral cortex.
b. medulla oblongata.
c. reticular activating system.
d. cingulate gyrus.

 

2.

A 20-year-old experiences a severe closed head injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following structures is most likely keeping the patient in a vegetative state (VS) 1 month after the accident?
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Brainstem
c. Spinal cord
d. Cerebellum

 

3.

A 16-year-old's level of arousal was altered after taking a recreational drug. Physical exam revealed a negative Babinski sign, equal and reactive pupils, and roving eye movements. Which of the following diagnoses will the nurse most likely see on the chart?
a. Psychogenic arousal alteration
b. Metabolically induced coma
c. Structurally induced coma
d. Structural arousal alteration

 

4.

The breathing pattern that reflects respirations based primarily on carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood is:
a. Cheyne-Stokes.
b. ataxic.
c. central neurogenic.
d. normal.

 

5.

A teenager sustains a severe closed head injury following an all-terrain vehicle (ATV) accident and is in a state of deep sleep that requires vigorous stimulation to elicit eye opening. How should the nurse document this in the chart?
a. Confusion
b. Coma
c. Obtundation
d. Stupor

 

6.

A patient experiences a severe head injury hitting a tree while riding a motorcycle. Breathing becomes deep and rapid but with normal pattern. What term should the nurse use for this condition?
a. Gasping
b. Ataxic breathing
c. Apneusis
d. Central neurogenic hyperventilation

 

7.

A patient presents to the emergency room (ER) reporting excessive vomiting. A CT scan of the brain reveals a mass in the:
a. skull fractures.
b. thalamus.
c. medulla oblongata.
d. frontal lobe.

 

8.

For legal purposes, brain death is defined as:
a. cessation of entire brain function.
b. lack of cortical function.
c. a consistent vegetative state (VS).
d. death of the brainstem.

 

9.

When thought content and arousal level are intact but a patient cannot communicate and is immobile, the patient is experiencing:
a. cerebral death.
b. locked-in syndrome.
c. dysphagia.
d. cerebellar motor syndrome.

 

10.

What term is used to describe an explosive, disorderly discharge of cortical neurons?
a. Reflex
b. Seizure
c. Inattentiveness
d. Brain death

 

11.

A patient has memory loss of events that occurred before a head injury. What cognitive disorder does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
a. Selective memory deficit
b. Anterograde amnesia
c. Retrograde amnesia
d. Executive memory deficit

 

12.

A 65-year-old patient who recently suffered a cerebral vascular accident is now unable to recognize and identify objects by touch because of injury to the sensory cortex. How should the nurse document this finding?
a. Hypomimesis
b. Agnosia
c. Dysphasia
d. Echolalia

 

13.

A patient experiences a stroke and now has difficulty writing and producing language. This condition is most likely caused by occlusion of the:
a. anterior communicating artery.
b. posterior communicating artery.
c. circle of Willis.
d. middle cerebral artery.

 

14.

A patient with an addiction to alcohol checked into a rehabilitation center as a result of experiencing delirium, inability to concentrate, and being easily distracted. What term would be used to document this state?
a. Acute confusional state
b. Echolalia
c. Dementia
d. Dysphagia

 

15.

The patient is experiencing an increase in intracranial pressure. This increase results in:
a. brain tissue hypoxia.
b. intracranial hypotension.
c. ventricular swelling.
d. expansion of the cranial vault.

 

16.

A compensatory alteration in the diameter of cerebral blood vessels in response to increased intracranial pressure is called:
a. herniation.
b. vasodilation.
c. autoregulation.
d. amyotrophy.

 

17.

A patient is admitted to the neurological critical care unit with a severe closed head injury. When an intraventricular catheter is inserted, the intracranial pressure (ICP) is recorded at 24 mm Hg. How should the nurse interpret this reading?
a. Higher than normal
b. Lower than normal
c. Normal
d. Borderline

 

18.

A 70-year-old patient is being closely monitored in the neurological critical care unit for a severe closed head injury. After 48 hours, signs of deterioration occur: pupils are small and sluggish, pulse pressure is widening, and heart rate is bradycardic. These clinical findings are evidence of what stage of intracranial hypertension?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

 

 

19.

The primary care provider states that the patient is experiencing vasogenic edema. The nurse realizes vasogenic edema is clinically important because:
a. it usually has an infectious cause.
b. the blood-brain barrier is disrupted.
c. ICP is excessively high.
d. it always causes herniation.

 

 

20.

The progress notes read: the cerebellar tonsil has shifted through the foramen magnum due to increased pressure within the posterior fossa. The nurse would identify this note as a description of _____ herniation.
a. supratentorial
b. central
c. cingulated gyrus
d. infratentorial

 

 

21.

An infant is diagnosed with noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is an immediate priority concern for this patient?
a. Metabolic edema
b. Interstitial edema
c. Vasogenic edema
d. Ischemic edema

 

 

22.

An adult is diagnosed with communicating hydrocephalus. The form of hydrocephalus in adults is most often caused by:
a. overproduction of CSF.
b. intercellular edema.
c. elevated arterial blood pressure.
d. defective CSF reabsorption.

 

 

23.

A 16-year-old male fell off the bed of a pickup truck and hit his forehead on the road. He now has resistance to passive movement that varies proportionally with the force applied. He is most likely suffering from:
a. spasticity.
b. paratonia.
c. rigidity.
d. dystonia.

 

 

 

24.

A patient reports tiring easily, having difficulty rising from a sitting position, and the inability to stand on toes. The nurse would expect a diagnosis of:
a. Parkinson disease.
b. hypotonia.
c. Huntington disease.
d. paresis.

25.

A patient has paralysis of both legs. What type of paralysis does the patient have?
a. Paraplegia
b. Quadriplegia
c. Infraparaplegia
d. Paresthesia

 

26.

Spinal shock is characterized by:
a. loss of voluntary motor function with preservation of reflexes.
b. cessation of spinal cord function below the lesion.
c. loss of spinal cord function at the level of the lesion only.
d. temporary loss of spinal cord function above the lesion.

 

27.

A patient has excessive movement. What disorder will the nurse see documented on the chart?
a. Hypokinesia
b. Akinesia
c. Hyperkinesia
d. Dyskinesia

 

28.

A 40-year-old male complains of uncontrolled excessive movement and progressive dysfunction of intellectual and thought processes. He is experiencing movement problems that begin in the face and arms and eventually affect the entire body. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. tardive dyskinesia.
b. Huntington disease.
c. hypokinesia.
d. Alzheimer disease.

 

29.

A nurse notes that a patient walks with the leg extended and held stiff, causing a scraping over the floor surface. What type of gait is the patient experiencing?
a. Spastic gait
b. Cerebellar gait
c. Basal ganglion gait
d. Scissors gait

 

30.

A patient is admitted to the neurological critical care unit with a severe closed head injury. All four extremities are in rigid extension, the forearms are hyperpronated, and the legs are in plantar extension. How should the nurse chart this condition?
a. Decorticate posturing
b. Decerebrate posturing
c. Dystonic posturing
d. Basal ganglion posturing

 

31.

A nurse recalls that neural systems basic to cognitive functions include _____ systems. (select all that apply)
a. attentional
b. memory and language
c. affective
d. sensory and motor
e. tactile

 

32.

The nurse is explaining clinical manifestations of alterations in the extrapyramidal system. The nurse would correctly include: (select all that apply)
a. little or no paralysis of voluntary movement.
b. normal or slightly increased tendon reflexes.
c. positive (present) Babinski.
d. presence of tremor.
e. rigidity in muscle tone.

 

33.

A patient who was admitted to a postsurgical unit 2 days ago is now demonstrating progressive restlessness and is uncharacteristically irritable. This scenario is characteristic of:
a. Alzheimer disease.
b. dementia.
c. delirium.
d. coma.

 

34.

A patient presents with a wide-based gait in which the feet are turned outward. Staggering is noted when walking and the pelvis is held stiff. These characteristics are representative of:
a. cerebellar gait.
b. basal ganglion gait.
c. decorticate posture.
d. apraxia.

 

 

35.

A patient who exhibits positioning that includes both arms being held close to the body with flexion at the elbows while legs are extended and rotated externally is demonstrating:
a. decerebrate posture.
b. spastic posture.
c. decorticate posture.
d. basal ganglion posture.

 

36.

A patient often experiences vomiting with a central nervous system (CNS) injury when the trauma:
a. impinges directly on the floor of the third ventricle.
b. causes a decrease in intracranial pressure.
c. involves the vestibular nuclei.
d. also involves the abdominal area.

 

37.

Criteria for determining brain death include: (select all that apply)

Select all that apply.

a. unresponsive coma.
b. no spontaneous respiration.
c. isoelectric EEG.
d. pupils are reactive but unequal.
e. ocular response to head turning.

 

38.

A patient who is experiencing difficulty in recognizing a pattern's form and the nature of objects is exhibiting characteristics of:
a. agnosia.
b. aphasia.
c. dysphasia.
d. Alzheimer disease.

 

39.

A patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury but is able to follow simple commands and can manipulate objects. The term used to describe this state is:
a. coma
b. vegetative
c. minimally conscious
d. locked-in syndrome

 

40.

A patient diagnosed with Parkinson disease initially experiences:
a. difficulty walking.
b. resting tremors.
c. postural instability.
d. rigidity of leg muscles.

 

41.

A patient experiencing the tonic phase of a seizure exhibits:
a. muscle contraction with increased muscle tone.
b. alternating contraction and relaxation of muscle.
c. muscle contraction alternating with placidity.
d. complete paralysis.

 

42.

A characteristic of Alzheimer disease includes: (select all that apply)

Select all that apply.

a. rapid onset of symptomatology.
b. short-term memory loss.
c. increased irritability and agitation.
d. anxiety and depression.
e. remissions resulting in cognitive clarity.

 

 

43.

Abnormal findings in which of the following evaluations would indicate possible neurologic dysfunction? (select all that apply)

Select all that apply.

a. Level of consciousness
b. Pattern of breathing
c. Decreased gastrointestinal motility
d. Eye response
e. Motor responses

a,b,d,e

The five categories that are critical for the evaluation process for neurologic function include: (1) level of consciousness (LOC), (2) pattern of breathing, (3) size and reactivity of pupils, (4) eye position and reflexive response, and (5) muscle motor responses. Gastrointestinal motility is not indicative of neurologic status.

44.

A patient who is experiencing a loss of comprehension or the production of language is described as having:
a. dysphasia.
b. aphasia.
c. expressive dysphasia.
d. transcortical dysphasia.

 

45.

It is correct to assume that Cheyne-Stokes respirations (CSR):
a. involve a pathological pattern of crescendo-decrescendo.
b. result in hypocapnia and increased ventilatory stimulus.
c. cause changes in PaO2 that produce irregular breathing.
d. increase PaCO2 level when overbreathing occurs.

 

46.

A patient who reports a loss of childhood memories is describing a characteristic of:
a. selective attention deficit.
b. retrograde amnesia.
c. anterograde amnesia.
d. executive attention deficits.

 

47.

It is TRUE that Alzheimer disease is:
a. an uncommon neurologic disorder.
b. not believed to have a genetic relationship.
c. a result of neuronal proteins becoming distorted and tangled.
d. the cause of plaques increasing nerve impulse transmission.

 

48.

A basic neural system essential to cognitive function would include: (select all that apply)

Select all that apply.

a. attentional systems.
b. memory systems.
c. affective or emotive systems.
d. sensory systems.
e. language systems.

 

 

49.

The term used to describe a patient who sustains a cerebrovascular accident and the limbs are paralyzed on an entire side is:
a. hemiplegia.
b. paraplegia.
c. diplegia.
d. quadriplegia.

 

 

50.

A means of classifying a seizure includes: (select all that apply)

Select all that apply.

a. clinical manifestations.
b. site of origin.
c. response to therapy.
d. length of activity.
e. EEG correlates.

 

 

51.

Pinhole-sized pupils can be a result of an overdose of:
a. atropine.
b. scopolamine.
c. opiates.
d. amphetamines.

 

52.

A patient is diagnosed with Huntington disease. Which of the following is a TRUE statement? Huntington's disease is:
a. a commonly diagnosed neurological disorder.
b. a nonhereditary disease.
c. also known as chorea.
d. asymptomatic until the sixth decade of life.

 

 

 

CHAPTER 16 Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction

1.

A nurse is preparing to teach staff about the most common type of traumatic brain injury. Which type of traumatic brain injury should the nurse discuss?
a. Penetrating trauma
b. Diffuse axonal injury
c. Focal brain injury
d. Concussion

 

2.

A coup injury resulting from a blow to the frontal portion of the skull would occur in which region of the brain?
a. Frontal
b. Temporal
c. Parietal
d. Occipital

 

3.

What is the main source of bleeding in extradural (epidural) hematomas?
a. Arterial
b. Venous
c. Capillary
d. Sinus

 

4.

A 69-year-old patient with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the emergency room (ER) after a month-long episode of headaches and confusion. The patient's history and symptomology support which medical diagnosis?
a. Concussion
b. Chronic subdural hematoma
c. Epidural hematoma
d. Subacute subdural hematoma

 

5.

Immediately after being struck by a motor vehicle, a patient is unconscious, but the patient regains consciousness before arriving at the hospital and appears alert and oriented. The next morning the patient is confused and demonstrates impaired responsiveness. The patient's history and symptoms support which medical diagnosis?
a. Mild concussion
b. Subdural hematoma
c. Extradural (epidural) hematoma
d. Mild diffuse axonal injury

 

6.

Which assessment finding by the nurse characterizes a mild concussion?
a. A brief loss of consciousness
b. Significant behavioral changes
c. Retrograde amnesia
d. Permanent confusion

 

7.

A CT scan reveals that a patient has an open basilar skull fracture. Which major complication should the nurse observe for in this patient?
a. Hematoma formation
b. Meningeal infection
c. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
d. Cognitive deficits

 

8.

A patient diagnosed with a diffuse brain injury (DBI) is at increased risk for which complication?
a. Complete loss of vision
b. Arrhythmia
c. Acute brain swelling
d. Meningitis infection

 

9.

After falling, a patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 5 initially and 7 after 1 day. The patient remained unconscious for 2 weeks but is now awake, confused, and experiencing anterograde amnesia. This history supports which medical diagnosis?
a. Mild diffuse brain injury
b. Moderate diffuse brain injury
c. Severe diffuse brain injury
d. Postconcussive syndrome

 

10.

Who is most at risk of spinal cord injury because of preexisting degenerative disorders?
a. Infants
b. Men
c. Women
d. The elderly

 

11.

A patient is brought to the ER for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. An MRI reveals spinal cord injury, and his body temperature fluctuates markedly. The most accurate explanation of this phenomenon is that:
a. he developed pneumonia.
b. his sympathetic nervous system has been damaged.
c. he has a brain injury.
d. he has septicemia from an unknown source.

 

 

12.

Six weeks ago a patient suffered a T6 spinal cord injury. What complication does the nurse suspect when the patient develops a blood pressure of 200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia?
a. Extreme spinal shock
b. Acute anxiety
c. Autonomic hyperreflexia
d. Parasympathetic areflexia

 

13.

A patient diagnosed with a spinal cord injury experienced spinal shock lasting 15 days. The patient is now experiencing an uncompensated cardiovascular response to sympathetic stimulation. What does the nurse suspect caused this condition?
a. Toxic accumulation of free radicals below the level of the injury
b. Pain stimulation above the level of the spinal cord lesion
c. A distended bladder or rectum
d. An abnormal vagal response

 

14.

A patient presents with acute low back pain. There is no history of trauma. An MRI reveals that the vertebra at L5 has slipped forward relative to those below it. Which of the following conditions will be documented on the chart?
a. Degenerative disk disease
b. Spondylolysis
c. Spondylolisthesis
d. Spinal stenosis

 

15.

The majority of intervertebral disk herniations occur between which vertebral levels (cervical, C; thoracic, T; lumbar, L; sacral, S)?
a. C1-C3
b. T1-T4
c. T12-L3
d. L4-S1

 

16.

A 30-year-old white male recently suffered a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following is the most likely factor that contributed to his stroke?
a. Age
b. Gender
c. Diabetes
d. Race

 

 

17.

Which of the following would increase a patient's risk for thrombotic stroke?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hypertension
c. Anemia
d. Dehydration

 

 

18.

Of the following groups, who are at highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
a. Blacks over 65 years of age
b. Whites over 65 years of age
c. Blacks under 65 years of age
d. Whites under 65 years of age

 

 

19.

A 72-year-old patient demonstrates left-sided weakness of upper and lower extremities. The symptoms lasted less than an hour and resolved with no evidence of infarction. The patient most likely experienced a(n):
a. stroke in evolution.
b. arteriovenous malformation.
c. transient ischemic attack.
d. cerebral hemorrhage.

 

 

20.

A major contributing process in CVAs is the development of atheromatous plaques in cerebral circulation. Where do these plaques most commonly form?
a. In the larger veins
b. Near capillary sphincters
c. In cerebral arteries
d. In the venous sinuses

 

 

21.

A 60-year-old patient with a recent history of head trauma and a long-term history of hypertension presents to the

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[Solved] NURSING 6501 FINAL EXAM / QUIZBANK WK 3 FINAL: ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY WK 3: Walden University

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ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY WK 3 CHAPTER 13 Structure and Function of the Neurologic System 1. When a patient asks what the somatic nervous system controls, how should the nurse respond? It controls: a. the heart. b. the spinal cord. c. skeletal muscle. d. smooth muscle organs. 2. A nurse is preparing to teach about nerves. Which information should the nurse include? The axon leaves the cell body at the: a. axon hillock. b. Nissl body. c. node of Ranvier. d. myelin sheath. 3. When a student asks in which region of the neuron do nerve impulses travel the fastest, how should the nurse respond? The: a. large axon. b. axon hillock. c. cell body. d. dendrites. 4. A neurologist is teaching the staff about motor neurons. Which structural classification identifies motor neurons? a. Unipolar b. Pseudounipolar c. Bipolar d. Multipolar 5. An experiment looking at an isolated neuron revealed a sensory nerve with one process containing a dendritic portion extending away from the CNS and an axon extending toward the CNS. Which of the following classifications would this neuron fall into? a. Bipolar b. Multipolar c. Pseudounipolar d. Interpolar 6. A cell was isolated from the CNS. A researcher revealed that its main function was to clear cellular debris. What type of cell is the researcher studying? a. Astrocyte b. Ependymal cell c. Microglia d. Schwann cell 7. Which neurons have the capacity for regeneration? a. Unmyelinated neurons in the brain b. Myelinated neurons in the spinal cord c. Myelinated peripheral neurons d. Postganglionic motor neurons 8. When a presynaptic neuron is stimulated in a patient's body by an electrical current, neurotransmitters are released from the: a. synapse. b. synaptic bouton. c. synaptic cleft. d. receptor. 9. Neurotransmitters interact with the postsynaptic membrane by binding to which structure? a. Receptor b. Nissl body c. Glial cell d. Neurofibril 10. If a neuron's membrane potential is held close to the threshold potential by excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs), the neuron is said to be: a. hyperpolarized. b. facilitated. c. integrated. d. inhibited. 11. A patient brought to the emergency room (ER) with severe burns is requesting something for the excruciating pain and is medicated with morphine, which blocks which of the following neurotransmitters, thus reducing the pain? a. Enkephalin b. Dopamine c. Acetylcholine d. Substance P 12. A 19-year-old college student reports to his primary care provider that he cannot stay awake in class regardless of how much sleep he gets. Under-stimulation of which area of the brain is likely the site of the problem? a. Corpora quadrigemina b. Reticular activating system c. Cerebellum d. Hypothalamus 13. After rehabilitation for severe brain damage following a motor vehicle accident, a patient reports that her thought processes and ability to concentrate are impaired. Which area does the nurse suspect is damaged? a. Thalamus b. Limbic c. Prefrontal d. Occipital 14. A neurologist is teaching about the region responsible for motor aspects of speech. Which area is the neurologist discussing? a. Wernicke area b. Broca area c. Brodmann area 4 d. Brodmann area 6 15. A patient is looking at a picture of the brain and points to the convolutions on the surface of the cerebrum. The nurse should tell the patient these are called: a. sulci. b. fissures. c. reticular formations. d. gyri. 16. Where is the primary visual cortex of the brain located? a. Frontal lobe b. Temporal lobe c. Occipital lobe d. Parietal lobe 17. A nurse is preparing to teach about functions to maintain homeostasis and instinctive behavioral patterns. Which area of the brain is the nurse discussing? a. Thalamus b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Hypothalamus 18. When a nurse is teaching about the transverse fiber tract that connects the two cerebral hemispheres, what term should the nurse use? a. Peduncle b. Corpus callosum c. Basal ganglia d. Pons 19. A student nurse asks the nurse what controls reflex activities concerned with heart rate and blood pressure. What is the nurse's best response? These reflex activities are controlled by the: a. medulla oblongata. b. pons. c. midbrain. d. cerebrum. 20. Blockage of which of the following would cause hydrocephalus? a. Cerebral aqueduct b. Inferior colliculi c. Red nucleus d. Tegmentum 21. A patient presents with altered respiratory patterns following head trauma. Based on the symptoms, which of the following areas does the nurse suspect is injured? a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. Midbrain d. Reticular formation 22. A nurse recalls that characteristics of upper motor neurons include: a. directly innervating muscles. b. influencing and modifying spinal reflex arcs. c. cell bodies located in the gray matter of the spinal cord. d. dendritic processes extending out of the CNS. 23. A nurse is teaching about the area of the spinal cord that contains cell bodies involved in the autonomic nervous system. Which of the following areas is the nurse discussing? a. Anterior horn b. Ventral horn c. Lateral horn d. Dorsal horn 24. A neurologist is teaching about sensory pathways. Which information should the neurologist include? Sensory pathways in the spinal cord to the thalamus are included in the: a. corticospinal tract. b. pyramids. c. spinothalamic tract. d. anterior column. 25. A nurse is discussing the membrane that separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum. What term should the nurse use to describe this membrane? a. Tentorium cerebelli b. Falx cerebri c. Arachnoid membrane d. Temporal lobe 26. What term should the nurse use when talking about the outermost membrane surrounding the brain? a. Dura mater b. Arachnoid mater c. Pia mater d. Falx cerebri 27. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accumulate around the brain when there is injury to the sites of CSF reabsorption, which are called the: a. arachnoid villi. b. epidural foramina. c. lateral apertures. d. choroid plexuses. 28. Which structure ensures collateral blood flow from blood vessels supplying the brain? a. Carotid arteries b. Basal artery c. Circle of Willis d. Vertebral arteries 29. What type of cell supports the forming of the blood-brain barrier (BBB)? a. Endothelial b. Schwann c. Oligodendrocyte d. Astrocyte 30. When a patient's vagus nerve is stimulated, what does the nurse expect to observe? a. Increased gastrointestinal activity b. Increased heart rate c. Pupil constriction d. Vasoconstriction 31. A patient suffers from head trauma that affects cranial nerve I. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect? a. Visual disturbances b. Loss of sense of smell c. Loss of ability to taste d. Hearing disturbances 32. Which neurotransmitter is released when a patient's parasympathetic motor neurons are stimulated? a. Epinephrine b. Serotonin c. Acetylcholine d. Substance P 33. Which action will occur when a patient's α1-receptors are stimulated? a. Dilation of the coronary arteries b. Vasoconstriction of arteries c. Increase in the strength of myocardial contraction d. Decrease in the rate of myocardial contraction 34. A patient begins taking a new drug that causes pupil dilation, vasoconstriction, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and goose bumps. Which of the following receptors are activated? a. α1 b. Α2 c. β1 d. Β2 35. The nurse is assessing the patient with a pen light. The integrity of which cranial nerve is being evaluated? a. Olfactory b. Vagus c. Oculomotor d. Trigeminal 36. Which of the following is a neuroglial cell? (select all that apply) a. Astrocyte b. Oligodendrocyte c. Neuron d. Ependymal cell e. Melanocyte 37. A nurse remembers the brain receives approximately ____% of the cardiac output. a. 80 b. 40 c. 20 d. 10 38. A nurse is monitoring intracranial pressure. A nurse recalls the normal upper limit of intracranial pressure is ____14___ mm Hg. 39. When a patient wants to know how many vertebrae make up the vertebral column, the nurse responds with _33____. 40. Which is an insulating substance for the neuron? a. Schwann cells b. Myelin c. Neuroglial cells d. Nodes of Ranvier 41. Which part of the brain contains all cell bodies and dendrites of neurons? a. Gyri b. Sulci c. White matter d. Gray matter 42. It is true that the cerebellum: a. makes up fibers of the corticospinal tract. b. maintains balance or posture. c. controls respiration. d. contains cranial nerves V through VIII. 43. The meninges surrounding the brain comprise the: (select all that apply) Select all that apply. a. dura mater. b. anterior fossa. c. pia mater. d. endosteal layer. e. anterior horn. 44. The central nervous system contains the: a. brain. b. somatic nervous system. c. afferent pathways. d. cranial nerves. 45. When a patient experiences a brain injury and the medulla oblongata is affected, it is reasonable to expect the client will experience: (select all that apply) Select all that apply. a. heart rate changes. b. alterations in respirations. c. altered blood pressure. d. alterations in balance and posture. e. problems in swallowing. 46. Successive, rapid impulses received from a single neuron on the same synapse best describes: a. temporal summation. b. spatial summation. c. actuation. d. facilitation. 47. Which structure is involved in pain transmission? a. Posterior horn b. Substantia gelatinosa c. Anterior horn d. Dorsal root ganglia 48. Which is a function of the thalamus? a. Major integrating center for afferent impulse b. Maintenance of internal environment c. Voluntary visual motor movements d. Movements of the auditory system 49. Which is a characteristic of Wallerian degeneration? (select all that apply) Select all that apply. a. Swelling b. Neurofilamental atrophy c. Myelin sheath shrinkage d. Axon portion degeneration e. Overproduction of axons 50. The neurotransmitter released from the postganglionic parasympathetic axon terminal is: a. acetylcholine. b. epinephrine. c. norepinephrine. d. dopamine. 51. It is true that the brain's Broca speech area: a. makes receptive responses possible. b. is responsible for motor speech. c. when traumatized results in the inability to hear. d. is found in the right cerebral hemisphere. 52. Which option is composed of endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes? a. Nissl substances b. Dendrities c. Microfilaments d. Microtubules 53. The major divisions of the brain include: (select all that apply) Select all that apply. a. forebrain. b. cerebrum. c. midbrain. d. hindbrain. e. brainstem. 54. The midbrain contains the: a. cerebral hemisphere. b. tegmentum. c. cerebellum. d. medulla oblongata. CHAPTER 14 Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function 1. A patient asks the nurse where nociceptors can be found. How should the nurse respond? One location in which nociceptors can be found is the: a. skin. b. spinal cord. c. efferent pathways. d. hypothalamus. 2. A nurse is discussing an individual's conditioned or learned approach or avoidance behavior in response to pain. Which system is the nurse describing? a. Sensory-discriminative system b. Affective-motivational system c. Sensory-motivational system d. Cognitive-evaluative system 3. A patient scrapes both knees while playing soccer and reports sharp and well-localized pain. Which of the following should the nurse document to most accurately characterize the pain? a. Chronic pain b. Referred pain c. Somatic pain d. Visceral pain 4. A nurse should document on the chart that chronic pain is occurring when the patient reports the pain has lasted longer than: a. 1 month. b. 3-6 months. c. 1 year. d. 2-3 years. 5. Several years after an amputation the patient continues to sporadically feel pain in the absent hand. What type of pain should the nurse document in the chart? a. Neuropathic pain b. Visceral pain c. Phantom limb pain d. Chronic pain 6. When planning care for a child in pain, which principle should the nurse reme...
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