Chamberlain College Of Nursing > NURSING > 2020 NR 508 Patho COMPLETE LAST EXAM (ALREADY GRADED A)
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Question 1 :
Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis?
Neisseria syphilis
Treponema pallidum
Haemophilus ducreyi
Chlamydia trachomatis
Question 2.
:
Kidney stones in the upper part of the ureter would produce pain referred to which anatomical area?
:
Vulva or penis
Umbilicus
Thighs
Lower abdomen
Question 3.
:
Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
Blood vessels
Epithelial cells
Connective tissue
Glandular tissue
Question 4.
Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 5.
What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated?
Refractory
Hyperpolarization
Threshold
Sinoatrial (SA)
Question 6.
Stress-induced norepinephrine results in:
Pupil constriction
Peripheral vasoconstriction
Increased sweat gland secretions
Decreased blood pressure
Question 7.
What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child?
104/55 mm Hg
106/58 mm Hg
112/62 mm Hg
121/70 mm Hg
Question 8.
Graves disease is a result of:
Increased levels of circulating immunoglobulins
The infiltration of the thyroid with T lymphocytes
Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites
Exposure to acetylates in substances such as rubber
Question 9.
Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer?
Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor.
Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer.
Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer.
Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.
Question 10.
Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long?
6 to 8 weeks
8 to 12 months
Until the iron level is normal
The rest of one’s life
Question 11.
Which of the following are formed elements of the blood that are not cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting?
Monocytes
Platelets
Macrophages
Erythrocytes
Question 12.
Question :
The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as:
Infectivity
Toxigenicity
Pathogenicity
Virulence
Question 13.
Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection?
The virus does not circulate in the blood.
It does not have antibody receptors.
It resists agglutination.
The virus is a soluble antigen.
Question 14.
Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system?
Decreased flow resistance
Fewer alveoli
Stiffening of the chest wall
Improved elastic recoil
Question 15.
Question :
Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin?
Viruses
Bacteria and fungi
Protozoa and Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Question 16.
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
IgE
IgG
IgM
T cells
Question 17.
Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.
The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of lean adults.
The rate of urine output of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults.
The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 18.
The World Health Organization (WHO) defines grade 1 (overweight) as a BMI of:
18.5 to 24.9
25 to 29.9
30 to 39.9
40 to 50.9
Question 19.
Which type of anemia occurs as a result of thalassemia?
Microcytic, hypochromic
Microcytic, normochromic
Macrocytic, hyperchromic
Macrocytic, normochromic
Question 20.
The area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli and portions of the tubules is called the:
Medulla
Cortex
Pyramids
Columns
Question 21.
At birth, which statement is true?
Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall.
Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung.
Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises.
Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise.
Question 22.
On average, what percent of cardiac output do the kidneys receive?
10% to 20%
15% to 20%
20% to 25%
30% to 35%
Question 23.
How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured?
Reticulocyte count
Serum transferring
Hemoglobin
Serum vitamin B12
Question 24.
What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies?
Greater quantities of histamine
More histamine receptors
Greater quantities of IgE
A deficiency in epinephrine
Question 25.
What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?
Herpes simplex virus type 6
Herpes simplex virus type 2
Human papillomavirus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Question 26.
In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells?
Thymus gland
Regional lymph nodes
Bone marrow
Spleen
Question 27.
Which of the following causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts?
Chlamydia
Adenovirus
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1)
Question 28.
Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?
Trachea
Segmental bronchi
Alveolocapillary membrane
Main bronchus
Question 29.
The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?
Posterior pituitary
Thyroid
Parathyroid
Anterior pituitary
Question 30.
Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful?
Flight or fight
Alarm
Adaptation
Arousal
Question 31.
In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult erythrocyte life span is _____ days.
30 to 50; 80
60 to 80; 120
90 to 110; 140
120 to 130; 150
Question 32.
Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Human papillomavirus
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Question 33.
What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children?
Chronic respiratory infections
Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
Obligatory mouth breathing
Paradoxic breathing
Question 34.
What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?
Nausea
Fatigue
Hair loss
Weight loss
Question 35.
Blood cells that differentiate into macrophages are known as:
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Question 36.
Where are Langerhans cells found?
Skin
Intestinal lining
Kidney
Thyroid
Question 37.
Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines?
Uromodulin
Nephrin
Urodilatin
Cystatin
Question 38.
How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?
An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.
An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.
An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.
An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s.
Question 39.
Which renal change is found in older adults?
Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate
Sharp decline in renal blood flow
Decrease in the number of nephrons
Decrease in urine output
Question 40.
Which nutritional deficiency in a pregnant woman is associated with neural tube defect (NTD)?
Iron
Vitamin C
Zinc
Folate
Question 41.
Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?
Syphilis
Herpes simplex virus
Chlamydia
Chancroid
Question 42.
Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Cortisol
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Question 43.
What is the function of erythrocytes?
Tissue oxygenation
Hemostasis
Infection control
Allergy response
Question 44.
Aspiration is most likely to occur in the right mainstem bronchus because it:
Extends vertically from the trachea.
Is narrower than the left mainstem bronchus.
Comes into contact with food and drink first.
Is located at the site where the bronchi bifurcate.
Question 45.
Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of:
Epinephrine and aldosterone
Norepinephrine and cortisol
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Acetylcholine and cortisol
Question 46.
Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance?
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypercalcemia
Question 47.
What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?
Nasal turbinates
Alveolar macrophages
Cilia
Irritant receptors on the nares
Question 48.
Where are alveolar macrophages found?
Skin
Breasts
Gastrointestinal tract
Lungs
Question 49.
Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process?
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Erythrocytes
Question 50.
The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant?
Immunotope
Paratope
Epitope
Antigenitope
Question 51.
An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident?
Chorionic
Alpha fetoprotein
Amniotic
Embryonic
Question 52.
What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
Diet high in saturated fats
Increased production of cholesterol by the liver
Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces
Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood
Question 53.
Which medication compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis?
Salt tablets
Pancreatic enzymes
Antihypertensives
Antibiotics
Question 54.
Which statement is true regarding the major difference between male and female sex hormone production?
Luteinizing hormone has no apparent action in a man.
In a man, sex hormone production is relatively constant.
Estradiol is not produced in a man.
In a man, gonadotropin-releasing hormone does not cause the release of follicle stimulating hormone.
Question 55.
Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell?
Potassium
Calcium
Sodium
Phosphorus
Question 56.
At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder?
Esophageal atresia
Congenital aganglionic megacolon
Pyloric stenosis
Galactosemia
Question 57.
Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which of the brain’s neurotransmitters?
Gamma-aminobutyric acid
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Acetylcholine
Question 58.
What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
Increases serum calcium.
Decreases serum calcium.
Decreases serum magnesium.
Increases serum magnesium.
Question 59.
How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature?
The release of epinephrine causes shivering.
It affects muscle tone.
It raises the metabolic rate.
It increases and strengthens the heart rate.
Question 60.
Consanguinity refers to the mating of persons:
Who are unrelated
When one has an autosomal dominant disorder
Having common family relations
When one has a chromosomal abnormality
Question 61.
The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term?
Relativity
Survivability
Prevalence
Incidence
Question 62.
Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain?
GCT
Pattern theory
Specificity theory
Neuromatrix theory
Question 63.
What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone?
Sharpey fibers
Collagen fibers
Glycoproteins
Elastin fibers
Question 64.
Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion?
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B1
Vitamin K
Folic acid
Question 65.
What is the leading cause of infertility in women?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Salpingitis
Polycystic ovary syndrome
Question 66.
What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain?
Limbic system
Parietal lobe
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
[Solved] Chamberlain College Of Nursing > NURSING > 2020 NR 508 Patho COMPLETE LAST EXAM (ALREADY GRADED A)
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