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NAPSRx Exam Question Bank / NAPSRx® Exam Preparation Practice Questions

Quiz 1, Chapter 1

1. Pharmaceuticals are arguably the most socially important healthcare product.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

2. Pharmaceutical development is a high-risk undertaking, in which many promising leads prove

disappointing.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

3. Pharmaceutical sales are highest in which geographical regions?

i. The U.S., Saudi Arabia, and Japan

ii. The U.S., Western Europe, and Japan

iii. Western Europe, Australia, and Canada

iv. Western Europe, Canada, and Saudi Arabia

4. The U.S. accounts for about ____ of the world’s pharmaceutical revenues.

i. 30%

ii. 50%

iii. 80%

iv. 95%

5. Which of the following has fueled recent growth in the pharmaceutical industry?

i. increased international standardization and regulation

ii. international legalization of DTC advertising

iii. population growth and increased life expectancies

iv. all of these

6. According to your manual, which statement accurately describes the predicted relationship between

pharmaceutical companies and genomic research facilities?

i. "Genomic research company" is another term for "ethical research company."

ii. Partnerships between pharmaceutical companies and genomic companies will not prove

immediately profitable.

iii. Pharmaceutical companies have little to no interest in partnerships with genomic research companies.

iv. Pharmaceutical companies will be genomic research companies' biggest competitors in the coming years.

7. Prescription drug therapy is not cost-effective for insurance companies and healthcare providers.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

8. The high price of healthcare is explained by the high price of medicines.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

9. One of the oldest and least effective pharmaceutical marketing techniques is DTC (direct-to-consumer)

advertising.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

10. What influences the number of districts in a region?

i. the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent that region

ii. the region's population

iii. both the district's population and the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent

that region

iv. none of these

11. What is an example of the regionalization of healthcare delivery systems?

i. California and Florida have different demographics.

ii. California and Florida have different drug companies.

iii. California and Florida have different DTC advertisements.

iv. California and Florida have different prescription reimbursement policies.

12. The heart of a pharmaceutical sales team is the Regional Manager.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

13. Most DMs did not start as representatives.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

14. How many territories are in a typical district?

i. 1 to 2

ii. 8 to 12

iii. 30 to 40

iv. 50 to 100

15. What is the most effective method for grabbing market share?

i. comparative selling

ii. criticizing the competition

iii. power point presentations

iv. questioning doctors' choices

 

Quiz 2 , Chapter 2 & 3

1. Pharmaceutical reps mainly visit pharmacies.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

2. It usually only takes 1-2 calls to a physician before he or she commits to prescribing your product.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

3. The pharmacist may dispense a product other than what the physician prescribed

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

4. According to Chapter 12 of your manual, which of the following would classify as "payers"?

i. employers

ii. patients

iii. pharmacists

iv. physicians

5. According to your manual, what defines "ethical pharmaceutical companies"?

i. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to consumer organizations

ii. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to the NIH

iii. manufacturing generics

iv. researching and developing novel drugs

6. One of the most disappointing results of the pharmaceutical industry’s continued investment in R & D is

the few new drugs being approved and in development.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

7. Thanks to modern medicines, how long are people newly diagnosed with HIV expected to live?

i. another 10 years

ii. another 20 years

iii. another 5 years

iv. another 50 years

8. How much has the average American lifespan increased since 1890?

i. almost 10 years

ii. almost 15 years

iii. almost 30 years

iv. almost 5 years

9. What is a treatment group?

i. a group of patients assigned to receive a specified treatment

ii. a group of patients who have volunteered to receive the active drug, but not the placebo

iii. A group of substances being tested

iv. A list of study protocols

10. What is the main difference between a blinded and double-blinded study?

i. A blinded study is performed to control the placebo effect whereas a double-blinded study is performed

to control the observer effect.

ii. A double-blinded study has two control groups, but a blinded study only has one.

iii. Blinded studies are more scientifically rigorous.

iv. In a double blinded study, neither the study staff nor the study participants know which subjects

are in the experimental group and which are in the control.

11. What does "asymptomatic" mean?

i. exhibiting atypical signs or symptoms that were not indicated in the product packaging

ii. not exhibiting signs or symptoms

iii. refusing treatment for symptoms

iv. toxic or harmful to the human body

 

 

 

 

 

Quiz 3 , Chapter 4

1. Which term denotes the study of bodily functions (as opposed to structures)?

i. anatomy

ii. cytology

iii. oncology

iv. physiology

2. In its broadest definition, a drug is any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the

body.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

3. How does the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) define a drug?

i. any substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of

disease, or a substance other than food intended to affect the structure or function of the body

ii. any substance that causes legitimate side effects

iii. any substance that outperforms a placebo

iv. any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body

4. Which statement about vitamins is CORRECT?

i. Most of the body's required vitamins are manufactured in the bone marrow.

ii. Most of the body's required vitamins are products of the body's metabolic processes.

iii. Most of the body's required vitamins must be taken in from outside the body.

iv. The body manufactures most of the vitamins it requires.

5. ADME testing measures the rate at which the body absorbs the drug, distributes it to the organs necessary

to produce the desired effect, metabolizes it into waste material and then excretes it from the body.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

6. ADME testing is primarily used in what field?

i. epidemiology

ii. epigenetics

iii. pharmacodynamics

iv. pharmacokinetics

7. Which statement about placebos is CORRECT?

i. By definition, placebos must b designed to affect everyone equally.

ii. Placebo effects can be distinguished from drugs because they are always desirable.

iii. Placebo effects can lead to withdrawal symptoms.

iv. Placebos can be distinguished from drugs because they do not lead to withdrawal symptoms.

8. On average, only about 5 of 4,000 drugs studied in the laboratory are eventually studied in people.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

9. Which statement is TRUE about drugs taken sublingually?

i. Sublingual administration is the most common route of administration.

ii. Sublingual drugs are absorbed directly and almost immediately into the bloodstream.

iii. Sublingual drugs are used primarily to treat the mouth.

iv. Sublingual drugs must first pass through the intestinal wall and liver, just like oral drugs, but can be used in

patients with swallowing problems.

10. What are 3 of the 7 rights of drug administration?

i. the right patient, the right drug, and the right dose

ii. the right supervision, the right patient, and the right dose

iii. the right technique, the right documentation, and the right supervision

iv. the right to information about one's medication, the right to question one's treatment, and the right to a

second opinion

11. Pro-drugs are administered in an active form, which is metabolized into an inactive form.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

12. The kidney of an 85-year-old person excretes drugs only _____ as efficiently as that of a 35-year-old

person.

i. around 15%

ii. around 30%

iii. around 50%

iv. This is impossible to predict because it depends on such a wide range of other factors.

13. The normal age-related decrease in kidney function can help doctors determine an appropriate dosage

based solely on a person’s age.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

14. What DIFFERENTIATES a caplet from a tablet?

i. Caplets are made of compressed powder.

ii. Caplets are shaped like capsules and have film coatings to aid in swallowing.

iii. Caplets are used for sustained-release drugs.

iv. Caplets contain hard cylindrical granules, liquids, or some combination of these.

15. Where will you find the legend “Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”?

i. on the label of all prescription drugs

ii. on the labels of all generic drugs

iii. only on the labels of drugs dispensed at pharmacies (as opposed to, e.g., product samples at doctors'

offices)

iv. only on the labels of product samples

16. What happens in slow acetylators?

i. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase are less likely to reach toxic levels than in fast

acetylators.

ii. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach higher blood levels and remain in

the body longer.

iii. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach lower blood levels, but remain in the

body longer.

iv. None of these statements apply to slow acetylators.

 

 

Quiz 4 , Chapter 4

1. About _____ of the people in the U.S. are "slow acetylators."

i. 1%

ii. 5%

iii. 25%

iv. 50%

2. Which of the following statements about drug-drug interactions is INCORRECT?

i. Drug-drug interactions are always harmful.

ii. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect causing toxicity when taken together.

iii. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect intensifying each other's therapeutic effects

without any serious side effects.

iv. Opposition can involve two drugs with opposing actions interacting to reduce one's effectiveness but not

the other's.

3. Smoking decreases the effectiveness of some drugs.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

4. Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is INCORRECT?

i. Because dietary supplements are not drugs, interactions with drugs are not a concern.

ii. Dietary supplements are regulated as foods.

iii. Dietary supplements contain vitamins, minerals, amino acids, and/or herbs.

iv. all of these

5. Which statement/s is/are INCORRECT about an ideal drug, or "magic bullet" as Ehrlich phrased it?

i. It does not exist.

ii. It would be aimed precisely at a disease site.

iii. It would not harm healthy tissues.

iv. All of these statements are correct.

6. Which statement accurately differentiates resistance from tolerance?

i. Doctors can predict resistance but not tolerance.

ii. There is no difference between tolerance and resistance.

iii. Tolerance is caused by genetic mutations, but resistance is always innate.

iv. Tolerance refers to a person's diminished response to a drug after repeated use, while resistance

applies to microorganisms' or "cancel" cells' abilities to withstand drug effects.

7. Between 3% and 7% of hospital admissions in the United States are estimated to be for treatment of

adverse drug reactions.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

8. Which statement is true about the universal scale for quantifying the severity of an adverse drug reaction?

i. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their chronicity.

ii. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their threat to life.

iii. None of these statements are true because the scale uses different criteria.

iv. None of these statements are true because there is no such scale.

9. Why is noncompliance a serious public health concern?

i. It erodes trust between physicians and pharmaceutical sales representatives.

ii. It increases the cost of medical care.

iii. It indicates a lack of accountability among healthcare providers.

iv. Noncompliance is a serious public health concern for all of these reasons.

10. Which of the following is NOT eligible for patent protection under U.S. regulations?

i. the drug itself

ii. the method of delivering and releasing the drug into the bloodstream

iii. the way the drug is made

iv. Companies can be granted patents for all of these things.

11. Drugs' trade names are often unrelated to their intended use.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

12. Like foods and household products, generic drugs are usually lower quality than the brand name drugs for

which they are marketed as equivalents.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

13. Legally, bioequivalence of different versions of a drug can vary by up to ________.

i. 3.50%

ii. 10%

iii. 20%

iv. The drugs must be 100% equivalent.

14. Which of the following statements about biologics is INCORRECT?

i. They are also called “large molecule" drugs.

ii. They are derived from living materials.

iii. They do not cause immune responses.

iv. Vaccines are a type of biologic.

15. “Large molecule” products are developed and manufactured by a chemical process.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

16. What are drugs that attract or bind to cell receptors in order to mimic or enhance activities by

endogenous chemical messengers?

i. agonists

ii. antagonists

iii. orphan drugs

iv. steroids

Quiz 5 , Chapter 4

1. Which term denotes how an API works in the body?

i. formulation

ii. mechanism of action

iii. site of action

iv. therapeutic group

2. What cements the active and inert components together to maintain cohesive portions?

i. binders

ii. colors

iii. disintegrants

iv. lubricants

3. What does the medical abbreviation "BID" denote?

i. as needed

ii. bioavailable in diet

iii. quality of drugs

iv. twice a day

4. What is the medical abbreviation for "as needed"?

i. BID

ii. PRN

iii. PSN

iv. QID

5. Which components might cause patients' different reactions to brand name and generic drugs?

i. differences in active ingredients

ii. differences in inactive ingredients

iii. differences in both active and inactive ingredients

iv. Patients' reactions to a brand name and generic drugs are equivalent.

6. All cells have a nucleus.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

7. Which of the following does NOT affect drug response?

i. the patient's genetic makeup, age, body size, and use of other drugs and dietary supplements.

ii. the patient's other conditions or diseases.

iii. whether or not the patient takes the drug properly

iv. All of these factors influence drug response.

8. Drug reactions are predictable because they do not occur after a person has been previously exposed to

the drug one or more times without any allergic reactions.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

9. What is the typical relationship between a drug's site of administration and site of action?

i. They are usually somewhat removed from each other.

ii. They are usually the same site.

iii. They should not be the same site for economic reasons.

iv. They should not be the same site for safety reasons.

10. What is CMAX?

i. an abbreviation for the maximum concentration of white blood cells

ii. the peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve

iii. the time interval within which a given dose of a drug is expected to have a therapeutic effect

iv. the time of peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve

11. Which of the following is NOT a main concept in clinical pharmacology?

i. Drug Distribution and Elimination

ii. Pharmacodynamics

iii. Pharmacokinetics

iv. Pharmacoprocesses

12. Which of the following is NOT a route of drug administration?

i. buccal

ii. Intramuscular

iii. sublingual

iv. transfugal

13. How are intradermal drugs delivered?

i. by injection under the skin

ii. through a skin patch

iii. through a topical ointment

iv. under the tongue

14. What is an example of intravenous drug delivery?

i. a subcutaneous insulin injection

ii. a transdermal nicotine patch

iii. an injection of anesthetic directly into the bloodstream

iv. any type of pre-surgery anesthetic

15. What are the major organs of the gastrointestinal system?

i. the heart, the blood vessels, and the blood

ii. the lymph nodes and lymph vessels

iii. the mouth, esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, gallbladder, small and large intestines

iv. the nasal passages, the trachea, the diaphragm, and the lungs

Quiz 6 , Chapter 6

1. Who is normally responsible for selling to distributors?

i. Floaters

ii. Local Territory Representatives

iii. NAMs

iv. Pharmacy Benefit Managers

2. How often do secondary drug wholesale distributors buy their drugs directly from manufactures?

i. always

ii. almost always

iii. sometimes

iv. never

3. By FDA law, large chain pharmacies are not allowed to buy directly from drug manufactures.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

4. Only 3 companies account for nearly 90% of all drug wholesale sales.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

5. What type of sale bypasses the need for intermediary distributors?

i. brokerage sales

ii. drop shipment sales

iii. integrated delivery network sales

iv. manufacturer-direct sales

6. What is a group purchasing organization (GPO)?

i. a company that owns and operates 3 or fewer pharmacies

ii. a wholesaler that obtains drugs from manufacturers and delivers them directly to pharmacists'

warehouses

iii. an entity consisting of two or more hospitals or other health care entities that negotiates

contracts on behalf of its members

iv. any distributor of a prescription drug that conducts at least 22 transactions every 2 years

7. Prescriptions dispensed by mail-order pharmacies are, on average, around ____________ than those

dispensed by retail pharmacies.

i. 3 times smaller

ii. just slightly smaller

iii. 3 times larger

iv. 10 times larger

8. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-stock sale?

i. brokerage sales

ii. dock-to-dock sales

iii. drop shipments

iv. All of these are examples of non-stock sales.

9. What is another term for rebates?

i. after-market arrangements

ii. in-state arrangements

iii. mail-order arrangements

iv. sell-side arrangements

10. The PDMA is the Prescription Drug Manufacturers Association.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

11. A company that owns and operates three or fewer pharmacies is an ____________.

i. authorized distributor

ii. independent drug store

iii. in-state wholesaler

iv. integrated drug store

12. Which section of a drug's package insert information covers the usual dosage range?

i. clinical pharmacology

ii. contraindications

iii. description

iv. indications and usage

13. Drug labels must include indications, usage information, and contraindications.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

14. What should be included in the "description" section of a drug's package insert information?

i. the drug's proprietary name and the established name

ii. the indications

iii. the mechanism of action

iv. warnings

Quiz 7 , Chapter 7

1. Exclusivity gives exclusive _____, is granted by the FDA, and can run concurrently with a patent or not.

i. marketing rights

ii. research work

iii. trademark assignment

iv. values

2. What differentiates exclusivity from a patent?

i. Exclusivity can be granted at any time during a drug's lifespan.

ii. Exclusivity can encompass a wide range of claims, whereas patents do not.

iii. Exclusivity is only granted upon the drug's FDA approval.

iv. Exclusivity typically lasts longer than patents.

3. What is required of an invention for it to be worthy of patent protection?

i. It must be novel, useful, and not obvious.

ii. It must have been on the market for at least 3 months.

iii. It must have competitors.

iv. all of these

4. A generic drug is ______ to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality.

i. bioequivalent

ii. biophysical

iii. different

iv. similar

5. Which of the following is NOT required by the FDA's Criteria for Equivalency?

i. The drugs are adequately labeled.

ii. The drugs contain identical amounts of the same active ingredients.

iii. The drugs contain identical amounts of the same inactive ingredients.

iv. The drugs involve the same dosage form and route of administration.

6. A generic drug is ______ to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality.

i. bioequivalent

ii. biophysical

iii. different

iv. similar

7. What list is generally considered the most reliable source of information on therapeutically equivalent

drug products?

i. "International Council on Harmonization (ICH) Handbook"

ii. “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence”

iii. The Blue Book

iv. The Red Book

8. Which of the following is an Orange Book rating?

i. AA

ii. B

iii. BZ

iv. CZ

9. What is the term for chemical equivalents which, when administered in the same amounts, will provide the

same biological or physiological availability as measured by blood and urine levels?

i. biological equivalents

ii. branded generics

iii. therapeutic alternatives

iv. therapeutic equivalents

10. What term denotes a drug that is identical or bioequivalent to the originator brand-name drug in dosage

form, safety, strength, route, quality, performance, characteristics, and intended use?

i. generic

ii. OTC

iii. therapeutic alternative

iv. vector-based

11. What term denotes the dispensing of an unbranded generic product for the product prescribed?

i. chemical substitution

ii. generic substitution

iii. pharmaceutical license

iv. Pharmacist's license

12. What is the duration of a patent challenge?

i. 2 weeks

ii. 4 weeks

iii. 180 Days

iv. 1 Year

Quiz 8 , Chapter 8

1. Ho w is a drug sample closet or cabinet like a grocery store shelf?

i. Drug sample closets are like grocery store shelves in all these ways.

ii. The generic products are usually kept on the top shelf.

iii. The more expensive products are always kept on the top shelf.

iv. The more visibility you can give your drug, the more likely that it will be prescribed.

2. Pharmaceutical representatives do not typically store and secure their own drug samples.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

3. Sampling is sometimes the most important factor in a pharmaceutical rep’s success.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

4. The FDA approves storage conditions for drug products.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

5. Pharmaceutical representatives must always record the amount of drug samples left and obtain a

signature for that amount.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

6. What is prohibited by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, as amended by the

Prescription Drug Marketing Act?

i. pharmaceutical companies providing research results directly to consumers

ii. the purchase of another company's drug research without written permission from the FDA

iii. the sale of pharmaceutical products to more than 8 different therapeutic classes

iv. the sale, purchase, or trade or offer to sell, purchase, or trade prescription drug samples

7. The federal government does not regulate the drug sampling for a pharmaceutical representative.

i. FALSE

ii. TRUE

8. Which of the following is permitted by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act?

i. hospitals donating their prescription drug coupons to qualified charitable organizationss

ii. hospitals donating their prescription drug samples to qualified charitable organizationss

iii. hospitals selling their prescription drug samples to qualified charitable organizations at reduced costs

iv. none of these

9. Which entity issues monographs that define how drugs should be stored, and what variance is allowed in

their stated contents?

i. FDA

ii. Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act

iii. International Council on Harmonization (ICH)

iv. United States Pharmacopoeial Convention

10. Storage conditions for drug products are based on information supplied by the manufacturer.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

11. Medications are usually unaffected by changes in temperature, light, humidity, and other environmental

factors.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

12. In which cases can degraded drugs SOMETIMES still be used?

i. always

ii. never

iii. when the amount of remaining drug has not fallen lower than 85-90% of that stated on the label

iv. when the degraded drug causes additional side effects, but they are nonfatal

13. Drug recalls are almost always negotiated with the FDA beforehand.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

14. Which problem would NOT be improved by electronic prescribing systems?

i. patients "doctor-shopping" for controlled substances

ii. pharmacists misreading presciptions

iii. physicians wasting time calling pharmacies

iv. none of these

15. What should you do if you receive a shipment from your employer and you notice that there are twice as

many samples as what is posted on the packing slip?

i. Call your Sales Manager to inform him/her of the mistake and ask for instructions on proper

procedure.

ii. Give each physician twice as many samples as this will increase the promotion of this particular drug.

iii. Store the samples for your next trade show.

iv. Store the samples in your home office and use them as samples as needed.

 

Quiz 9 , Chapter 9

1. Which area of drug R&D has seen the largest cost increases?

i. animal testing

ii. clinical trials

iii. manufacturing

iv. self regulation

2. On average, how long does it take for a new drug to be developed (i.e., from the discovery of the initial

compound to FDA approval)?

i. 3-5 years

ii. 10-15 years

iii. 15-20 years

iv. 20-30 years

3. Which of the following regulatory agencies is industry-based (i.e., run mainly by the companies

themselves)?

i. Drug Enforcement Administration

ii. European Medicines Agency

iii. Pharmaceutical Research and Manufactures of America (PhRMA)

iv. the FDA

4. Which of the following factors has simplified the pharmaceutical R&D process?

i. an intensive regulatory process

ii. growing demand in the medical community for more complex data about pharmaceuticals

iii. the increasing number of procedures in Phase III trials

iv. none of these

5. The landmark FDA Modernization Act of 1997 was a major step forward in enabling safe and effective

new drugs and biologics to be made available sooner to patients.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

6. According to your manual, which type of system is the best way to deliver healthcare?

i. a central-price system

ii. a market-based system

iii. a non-negotiable system

iv. a patient-restrictive system

7. How would increased pharmaceutical price controls affect the U.S. healthcare system?

i. Increased price controls would encourage the development of more life-saving medicines.

ii. Increased price controls would limit the FDA's power.

iii. Increased price controls would similarly increase companies' incentives to invest in R&D.

iv. Increased price controls would stifle innovation.

8. Which of the following invests a greater percentage of sales in research than the biotech sector?

i. the aerospace sector

ii. the communications sector

iii. the electronics sector

iv. none of these

9. What was the intent of the Bayh-Dole Act and the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Innovation Act?

i. to curb the commercialization of technologies

ii. to hasten the commercialization of technologies that otherwise might not be used

iii. to keep government-funded ideas under government control

iv. to secure funding for public university-based research initiatives

10. According to your manual, what did the G10 Medicines Group recently report about the pharmaceutical

industry in the European Union (EU)?

i. The EU pharmaceutical industry has surpassed the US pharmaceutical industry because of increased price

controls in the EU.

ii. The EU pharmaceutical industry has surpassed the US pharmaceutical industry because of increased price

controls in the US.

iii. The EU should continue to discourage links between private and public research facilities.

iv. There is poor collaboration between publicly- and privately-funded research centers.

 

 

 

 

Quiz 10 , Chapter 10

1. The aim of preclinical pharmacological studies is to obtain data on the safety and effectiveness of the lead

compound.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

2. Toxicity information in preclinical studies helps provide confidence about a drug's safety.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

3. Pharmacological studies using animals are regulated under Good Laboratory Practice.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

4. Why do drugs administered to patients only contain APIs?

i. economic reasons

ii. for reasons of safety and economics

iii. safety reasons

iv. They don't.

5. Which of the following does NOT affect a drug's ability to permeate membranes?

i. the drug's chemical composition

ii. the drug's polarity

iii. the drug's size

iv. the drug's vesicles

6. Through which barriers can lipid-soluble drugs usually pass?

i. cell membranes

ii. the blood brain barrier, but not the gastroinstestinal tract

iii. the gastrointestinal tract, but not the blood brain barrier

iv. neither the gastrointestinal tract nor the blood-brain barrier

7. How are weak acid drugs generally absorbed by the stomach?

i. at about the same speed as weak basic drugs

ii. more quickly than weak basic drugs

iii. more slowly than weak basic drugs

iv. not at all

8. Which of the following routes of administration do NOT completely bypass the liver?

i. intravenous administration

ii. rectal administration

iii. transdermal administration

iv. All of these completely bypass the liver.

9. Why are intravenous drug dosages easier to control than drugs administered transdermally?

i. Intravenous drugs are neutralized by the pH conditions of the gastrointesinal tract.

ii. Intravenous drugs are subject to first-pass metabolism by the liver.

iii. The entire dose is available in the bloodstream to be distributed to the target site.

iv. The site of administration is the same as the site of action.

10. Which of the following does NOT affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues?

i. the drug's lipid-solubility

ii. the drug's polarity

iii. the vascular nature of the drug's target tissue

iv. All of these factors affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues.

11. Which of these medical terms means “to apply the drug on the skin surface”?

i. buccal

ii. intramuscular

iii. transdermal

iv. vascular

12. Carcinogenicity studies are carried out to identify the tumor-causing potential of a drug.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

 

 

Quiz 11 , Chapter 11

1. According to NIH ethical guidelines, which of the following is the most important criteria in selecting

subjects for clinical studies?

i. convenience

ii. relative risk

iii. scientific objectives

iv. vulnerability

2. Which statement about the IRB is INCORRECT?

i. The investigator must inform the IRB/IEC of any changes in the research activity.

ii. The IRB/IEC acts as a third party to oversee the welfare of the trial subjects

iii. The IRB/IEC has the right to stop a trial or require that procedures and methods be changed.

iv. The members of the IRB/IEC must be experts in the topic of the study

3. Which phases of clinical studies are "open label" and which are blinded?

i. All clinical trials are blinded except for Phase I.

ii. All clinical trials are blinded except for Phase IV.

iii. All clinical trials are blinded.

iv. Phase I and IV trials are often open label, but Phase II and III are double-blinded or at least blinded.

4. If it is not possible to measure the direct effects of a drug, what is used instead?

i. likelihood ratios

ii. odds ratios

iii. predictive values

iv. surrogate markers such as blood pressure and cholesterol levels

5. Which of the following is an observational study that first identifies a group of subjects with a certain

disease and a control group without the disease, and then looks to back in time (e.g., via chart reviews) to

find exposure to risk factors?

i. case series

ii. case-control study

iii. cross-sectional study

iv. longitudinal cohort study

6. Which measure of central tendency is the sum of all observations divided by the number of observations?

i. interquartile range

ii. mean

iii. median

iv. mode

7. Which measurement describes the number of new events that occur during a specified period of time in a

population at risk for the event (e.g., lung infections per year)?

i. incidence

ii. odds ratio

iii. prevalence

iv. relative risk

8. Which of the following measures is used to describe the variability of the population mean?

i. prevalence

ii. range

iii. standard deviation

iv. standard error of the mean

9. Which of the following terms denotes the extent to which a test actually measures what it is supposed to

be measuring, or what we think it is measuring?

i. relevance

ii. sensitivity

iii. specificity

iv. validity

10. What are the Kaplan-Meier analysis and Cox proportional hazards analysis?

i. measures of inference errors

ii. methods for ensuring validity

iii. methods of survival analysis

iv. types of surrogate markers

11. What section of a clinical paper describes subjects' entry and exclusion criteria?

i. conclusion

ii. introduction

iii. methods

iv. results

12. Which document sets out how a trial is to be conducted (i.e., the study's general design and operating

features)?

i. case report

ii. consent form

iii. inclusion criteria

iv. protocol

13. When designing and performing clinical trials, several ethical constraints must be considered. Which of the

following is NOT one of these ethical constraints?

i. geographic variations

ii. independent review

iii. scientific validity

iv. social value

Quiz 12 , Chapter 12

1. What is one way in which "large molecule" drugs DIFFER from "small molecule" drugs?

i. Large molecule drugs are mainly protein-based drugs that develop in biological systems such as

living cells.

ii. Large molecule drugs are synthesized using techniques based on chemical reactions of reactants.

iii. Small molecule drugs are also known as biopharmaceuticals.

iv. Small molecule drugs are mainly protein-based drugs that develop in biological systems such as living

cells.

2. Which of the following statements about vaccines is INCORRECT?

i. After initial vaccination, booster doses may be needed to maximize vaccines' immunological effects.

ii. Vaccine development focuses on how to reduce virulence while retaining the ability to produce immunity.

iii. Vaccines are types of "small molecule" drugs.

iv. Vaccines contain antigenic components that are obtained from or derived from the pathogen.

3. What is an advantage of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines?

i. Attenuated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.

ii. Attenuated vaccines do not revert to virulence.

iii. Attenuated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.

iv. Attenuated vaccines require multiple doses.

4. How are toxoids derived?

i. from a patients' own MHC markers

ii. from the body's naturally occuring immune globulins

iii. from the body's naturally occuring neurotransmitters

iv. from the toxins secreted by a pathogen

5. What is the estimated annual death toll for malaria?

i. 300 to 500 million people

ii. 300,000 to 500,000 people

iii. 500,000 to 1 million people

iv. 1.5 to 3.5 million people

6. There are more white blood cells than red blood cells for the same volume in the human body.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

7. How was insulin primarily obtained from the 1930s to the 1980s?

i. artificial human growth factors

ii. non-diabetic human donors

iii. porcine and bovine extracts

iv. recombinant biopharmaceutical processes

8. Which of the following are NOT types of cytokines?

i. interferons

ii. interleukins

iii. monokines

iv. All of these are types of cytokines.

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of hormones?

i. amino acid derivatives

ii. blood glucose

iii. polypeptides

iv. steroids

10. Which of the following is a basic gene therapy technique?

i. in situ, in which patients' genetically faulted tissues are removed, loaded with normal genes in vectors, and

returned to the patients' bodies

ii. in situ, in which patients' tissues are removed, transplanted into animal donors where the normal genes

are produced, and then returned to the patients' bodies

iii. in vitro, in which patients' genetically faulted tissues are removed, loaded with normal genes in

vectors, and returned to the patients' bodies

iv. in vitro, in which patients' tissues are removed, transplanted into animal donors where the normal genes

are produced, and then returned to the patients' bodies

11. Which statement about stem cells is CORRECT?

i. Multipotent stem cells are the most controversial because they can only be harvested from embryos.

ii. Multipotent stem cells can develop into a much broader range of types of cells than pluripotent or

totipotent cells.

iii. Pluripotent stem cells can develop into many cell types, but not a new individual.

iv. Totipotent stem cells can produce a number of specialized cells, but not a new individual.

12. Leukemia is a condition in which the stem cells in the bone marrow malfunction and produce an excessive

number of immature white blood cells.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

13. Which of the following are types of vectors used in gene therapy?

i. multipotent stem cells

ii. pluripotent stem cells

iii. retroviruses

iv. totipotent stem cells

14. Which of the following is NOT a type of stem cell?

i. multipotent

ii. pluripotent

iii. semipotent

iv. totipotent

15. Traditional vaccines are prepared in a number of ways. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

i. attenuated

ii. insulin

iii. inactivated

iv. toxoids

 

Quiz 13 , Chapter 13

1. Effective drug therapy is a cost-effective and highly valuable means of controlling total healthcare

expenditures and improving quality of life.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

2. Drug utilization review (DUR) programs…

i. ...have traditionally been used to ensure the appropriate, safe, and effective use of prescription

drugs, but are increasingly shifting their focus to minimizing costs.

ii. ...have traditionally been used to minimize costs, but are increasingly focused on ensuring the appropriate,

safe, and effective use of prescription drugs..

iii. …are increasingly popular, and expected to be used by almost 90% of HMOs in the coming years.

iv. …seldom require retrospective monitoring of physicians' prescribing patterns.

3. DUR programs involve retrospective monitoring of physicians’ prescribing patterns.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

4. A formulary is a list of prescription drugs approved by insurance coverage.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

5. The history of drug formularies in the U.S. extends back to…

i. ...the 1980s.

ii. ...the American Revolution.

iii. ...the mid-twentieth century.

iv. ...the Victorian era.

6. Which of these is NOT a type of formulary?

i. a closed three-tier formulary in which generic drugs are listed on Tier 1

ii. a five-tier formulary that is supplemented by a step therapy program

iii. an open formulary that places few restrictions on coverage or access

iv. All of these are types of formularies.

7. Which of the following is NOT a recent formulary trend?

i. multi-tier strategies

ii. prior authorization

iii. step therapy

iv. the repeal of Hatch-Waxman

8. What did the Hatch-Waxman Act do?

i. make it easier for generic manufacturers to compete with R&D companies

ii. make it more difficult for generic manufacturers to compete with R&D companies

iii. make it more difficult for generic manufacturers to manufacture and distribute off-patent drugs

iv. none of these

9. What is opportunity cost?

i. the resources required to have multiple opportunities

ii. the resources required to make a decision

iii. the value of a sacrificed alternative

iv. the value of having multiple opportunities

10. According to your manual, the three primary entities that fund pharmaceuticals are employers, the

government (Medicare and Medicaid), and ______.

i. hospitals

ii. individuals

iii. pharmacies

iv. physicians

11. Which of these individuals would NOT be a member of a P&T committee?

i. a company's medical liaison

ii. an attending physician

iii. the physician who heads the surgery department

iv. All of these people are typically members of the P&T committee.

12. Almost 98% of employed Americans are now covered by a HMO, a preferred provider organization, or a

point-of-service plan.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

 

 

Quiz 14 , Chapter 14 & 15

1. Pharmaceutical companies are more interested in acquiring and exploiting another’s brands than in

acquiring another's R&D and sales and marketing assets.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

2. Ideally, when should brand strategy development for a new drug begin?

i. as soon as a clinical need is identified

ii. as soon as a lead compound has been discovered

iii. during Phase II clinical trials

iv. during Phase IV trials

3. Which of the following is an example of a "expressive" value?

i. "I own a BMW because I like feeling the road."

ii. "I own a BMW because I like the bells and whistles."

iii. "I own a BMW because I want people to know that I'm a serious driving enthusiast."

iv. "I own a BMW because it's German like I am."

4. According to your manual, which of the following is NOT an example of a "functional" value?

i. convenience

ii. efficacy

iii. safety

iv. uniqueness

5. It is rare for pharmaceutical companies to explore, develop, and promote expressive values with which

patients might identify.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

6. To be competitive, pharmaceutical brands must be distinctive. They must possess defining characteristics

that are perceived by customers to be unique, attractive, and relevant to their needs.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

7. With the global need for new drugs, pharmaceutical brand names are not subject to regulatory approval.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

8. How has DTC advertising changed over the last few decades?

i. DTC advertising has become a tactic used only by large brands.

ii. DTC advertising has become a tactic used only by small brands.

iii. DTC advertising has become an essential marketing tactic for both large and small brands.

iv. DTC advertising has become an important marketing tactic all over the world.

9. Which of the following MOST strongly influences physicians' prescribing habits?

i. doctors' personal experiences, and their patients' unique situations

ii. DTC advertising

iii. other types of pharmaceutical marketing

iv. patients' opinions about DTC advertising

10. Pharmaceutical companies spend more onpromotional activities than on R&D.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

11. Which of the following would be MOST well-served by mass-market print and TV ads?

i. a brand that treats a rare, acute condition

ii. a brand that treats a small but active patient base

iii. a brand that treats a very common chronic condition

iv. a very expensive brand

 

Quiz 15 , Chapter 16

1. Which of the below is the least commonly analyzed fluid for conducting a medical diagnostic test?

i. Blood

ii. Urine

iii. Fluid that surrounds the spinal cord

iv. Salive

2. "Gold standard" testing achieves the greatest results among the diagnostic testing measurements. Gold

standards provide the best understanding of what is happening to a patient so cost is not a factor when

deciding to run these tests routinely.

i. TRUE

ii. FALSE

3. Every test has some risk. The risk may be the possibil

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[Solved] NAPSRx Exam Question Bank (Latest)

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NAPSRx Exam Question Bank / NAPSRx® Exam Preparation Practice Questions Quiz 1, Chapter 1 1. Pharmaceuticals are arguably the most socially important healthcare product. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 2. Pharmaceutical development is a high-risk undertaking, in which many promising leads prove disappointing. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 3. Pharmaceutical sales are highest in which geographical regions? i. The U.S., Saudi Arabia, and Japan ii. The U.S., Western Europe, and Japan iii. Western Europe, Australia, and Canada iv. Western Europe, Canada, and Saudi Arabia 4. The U.S. accounts for about ____ of the world’s pharmaceutical revenues. i. 30% ii. 50% iii. 80% iv. 95% 5. Which of the following has fueled recent growth in the pharmaceutical industry? i. increased international standardization and regulation ii. international legalization of DTC advertising iii. population growth and increased life expectancies iv. all of these 6. According to your manual, which statement accurately describes the predicted relationship between pharmaceutical companies and genomic research facilities? i. "Genomic research company" is another term for "ethical research company." ii. Partnerships between pharmaceutical companies and genomic companies will not prove immediately profitable. iii. Pharmaceutical companies have little to no interest in partnerships with genomic research companies. iv. Pharmaceutical companies will be genomic research companies' biggest competitors in the coming years. 7. Prescription drug therapy is not cost-effective for insurance companies and healthcare providers. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 8. The high price of healthcare is explained by the high price of medicines. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 9. One of the oldest and least effective pharmaceutical marketing techniques is DTC (direct-to-consumer) advertising. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 10. What influences the number of districts in a region? i. the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent that region ii. the region's population iii. both the district's population and the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent that region iv. none of these 11. What is an example of the regionalization of healthcare delivery systems? i. California and Florida have different demographics. ii. California and Florida have different drug companies. iii. California and Florida have different DTC advertisements. iv. California and Florida have different prescription reimbursement policies. 12. The heart of a pharmaceutical sales team is the Regional Manager. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 13. Most DMs did not start as representatives. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 14. How many territories are in a typical district? i. 1 to 2 ii. 8 to 12 iii. 30 to 40 iv. 50 to 100 15. What is the most effective method for grabbing market share? i. comparative selling ii. criticizing the competition iii. power point presentations iv. questioning doctors' choices Quiz 2 , Chapter 2 & 3 1. Pharmaceutical reps mainly visit pharmacies. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 2. It usually only takes 1-2 calls to a physician before he or she commits to prescribing your product. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 3. The pharmacist may dispense a product other than what the physician prescribed i. TRUE ii. FALSE 4. According to Chapter 12 of your manual, which of the following would classify as "payers"? i. employers ii. patients iii. pharmacists iv. physicians 5. According to your manual, what defines "ethical pharmaceutical companies"? i. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to consumer organizations ii. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to the NIH iii. manufacturing generics iv. researching and developing novel drugs 6. One of the most disappointing results of the pharmaceutical industry’s continued investment in R & D is the few new drugs being approved and in development. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 7. Thanks to modern medicines, how long are people newly diagnosed with HIV expected to live? i. another 10 years ii. another 20 years iii. another 5 years iv. another 50 years 8. How much has the average American lifespan increased since 1890? i. almost 10 years ii. almost 15 years iii. almost 30 years iv. almost 5 years 9. What is a treatment group? i. a group of patients assigned to receive a specified treatment ii. a group of patients who have volunteered to receive the active drug, but not the placebo iii. A group of substances being tested iv. A list of study protocols 10. What is the main difference between a blinded and double-blinded study? i. A blinded study is performed to control the placebo effect whereas a double-blinded study is performed to control the observer effect. ii. A double-blinded study has two control groups, but a blinded study only has one. iii. Blinded studies are more scientifically rigorous. iv. In a double blinded study, neither the study staff nor the study participants know which subjects are in the experimental group and which are in the control. 11. What does "asymptomatic" mean? i. exhibiting atypical signs or symptoms that were not indicated in the product packaging ii. not exhibiting signs or symptoms iii. refusing treatment for symptoms iv. toxic or harmful to the human body Quiz 3 , Chapter 4 1. Which term denotes the study of bodily functions (as opposed to structures)? i. anatomy ii. cytology iii. oncology iv. physiology 2. In its broadest definition, a drug is any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 3. How does the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) define a drug? i. any substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease, or a substance other than food intended to affect the structure or function of the body ii. any substance that causes legitimate side effects iii. any substance that outperforms a placebo iv. any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body 4. Which statement about vitamins is CORRECT? i. Most of the body's required vitamins are manufactured in the bone marrow. ii. Most of the body's required vitamins are products of the body's metabolic processes. iii. Most of the body's required vitamins must be taken in from outside the body. iv. The body manufactures most of the vitamins it requires. 5. ADME testing measures the rate at which the body absorbs the drug, distributes it to the organs necessary to produce the desired effect, metabolizes it into waste material and then excretes it from the body. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 6. ADME testing is primarily used in what field? i. epidemiology ii. epigenetics iii. pharmacodynamics iv. pharmacokinetics 7. Which statement about placebos is CORRECT? i. By definition, placebos must b designed to affect everyone equally. ii. Placebo effects can be distinguished from drugs because they are always desirable. iii. Placebo effects can lead to withdrawal symptoms. iv. Placebos can be distinguished from drugs because they do not lead to withdrawal symptoms. 8. On average, only about 5 of 4,000 drugs studied in the laboratory are eventually studied in people. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 9. Which statement is TRUE about drugs taken sublingually? i. Sublingual administration is the most common route of administration. ii. Sublingual drugs are absorbed directly and almost immediately into the bloodstream. iii. Sublingual drugs are used primarily to treat the mouth. iv. Sublingual drugs must first pass through the intestinal wall and liver, just like oral drugs, but can be used in patients with swallowing problems. 10. What are 3 of the 7 rights of drug administration? i. the right patient, the right drug, and the right dose ii. the right supervision, the right patient, and the right dose iii. the right technique, the right documentation, and the right supervision iv. the right to information about one's medication, the right to question one's treatment, and the right to a second opinion 11. Pro-drugs are administered in an active form, which is metabolized into an inactive form. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 12. The kidney of an 85-year-old person excretes drugs only _____ as efficiently as that of a 35-year-old person. i. around 15% ii. around 30% iii. around 50% iv. This is impossible to predict because it depends on such a wide range of other factors. 13. The normal age-related decrease in kidney function can help doctors determine an appropriate dosage based solely on a person’s age. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 14. What DIFFERENTIATES a caplet from a tablet? i. Caplets are made of compressed powder. ii. Caplets are shaped like capsules and have film coatings to aid in swallowing. iii. Caplets are used for sustained-release drugs. iv. Caplets contain hard cylindrical granules, liquids, or some combination of these. 15. Where will you find the legend “Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”? i. on the label of all prescription drugs ii. on the labels of all generic drugs iii. only on the labels of drugs dispensed at pharmacies (as opposed to, e.g., product samples at doctors' offices) iv. only on the labels of product samples 16. What happens in slow acetylators? i. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase are less likely to reach toxic levels than in fast acetylators. ii. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach higher blood levels and remain in the body longer. iii. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach lower blood levels, but remain in the body longer. iv. None of these statements apply to slow acetylators. Quiz 4 , Chapter 4 1. About _____ of the people in the U.S. are "slow acetylators." i. 1% ii. 5% iii. 25% iv. 50% 2. Which of the following statements about drug-drug interactions is INCORRECT? i. Drug-drug interactions are always harmful. ii. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect causing toxicity when taken together. iii. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect intensifying each other's therapeutic effects without any serious side effects. iv. Opposition can involve two drugs with opposing actions interacting to reduce one's effectiveness but not the other's. 3. Smoking decreases the effectiveness of some drugs. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 4. Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is INCORRECT? i. Because dietary supplements are not drugs, interactions with drugs are not a concern. ii. Dietary supplements are regulated as foods. iii. Dietary supplements contain vitamins, minerals, amino acids, and/or herbs. iv. all of these 5. Which statement/s is/are INCORRECT about an ideal drug, or "magic bullet" as Ehrlich phrased it? i. It does not exist. ii. It would be aimed precisely at a disease site. iii. It would not harm healthy tissues. iv. All of these statements are correct. 6. Which statement accurately differentiates resistance from tolerance? i. Doctors can predict resistance but not tolerance. ii. There is no difference between tolerance and resistance. iii. Tolerance is caused by genetic mutations, but resistance is always innate. iv. Tolerance refers to a person's diminished response to a drug after repeated use, while resistance applies to microorganisms' or "cancel" cells' abilities to withstand drug effects. 7. Between 3% and 7% of hospital admissions in the United States are estimated to be for treatment of adverse drug reactions. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 8. Which statement is true about the universal scale for quantifying the severity of an adverse drug reaction? i. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their chronicity. ii. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their threat to life. iii. None of these statements are true because the scale uses different criteria. iv. None of these statements are true because there is no such scale. 9. Why is noncompliance a serious public health concern? i. It erodes trust between physicians and pharmaceutical sales representatives. ii. It increases the cost of medical care. iii. It indicates a lack of accountability among he...
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