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STR  581 Week 2 Capstone exam

1. Which of the following is considered an organizational blueprint, which prescribes the quantity and time frame for when each end product will be assembled?

2. The concept that some leadership attributes will work in some situations but not in others can be described by the

3. Which of the following is a desirable strategy for managers aiming to reduce the negative consequences of rumors?

4. Because practical considerations make job tryouts for all candidates infeasible, it is necessary to _____________ the relative level of job performance for each candidate on the basis of available information.

5.During the implementation of a project, which of the following should be the primary focus of a consulting firm?

6.  Some studies indicate the best approach for transformational change may have the chief executive officer create an atmosphere for change

7. A project can be segmented into which of the following?

8. Conflicts can be resolved by withdrawing from them or suppressing them.  This conflict-management technique is known as_____________________________.

9. __________________ refers to an individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task.

10._______________________ is the biggest hurdle to overcome in a pay-for performance plan.

11. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the effectiveness of tactics?

12.  As a university student, your institution's social principles and practices reflect on you, as a stakeholder, in the organization.  Therefore, it is your right to question how these practices should be evaluated in relation to the social issues that the school is addressing.  If your university provides job-share programs, builds a day-care facility, and only uses recycled paper, it could be said to be_________.

13.  Deming's PDCA (plan, do, check, and act) cycle underlies what inherent Six Sigma principle?

14.  In performing a SWOT analysis, which of the following would be considered as a threat?

15.  According to the job characteristics model, autonomy is defined as the degree to which _________.

16.  Which of the following is an element that addresses elimination of waste under lean production?

17.  An example of control criteria that can be used in any situation is _____________________.

18.  Active listening requires: ________________________________

19.  Training that results in _________________ is costly because of the cost of training ( which proved to be useless) and the cost of hampered performance.

20.  In order to make their firm a learning organization, managers should?

21.  Which of the following is one of the Dr. Eli Goldratt's rules of production scheduling for optimized production technology?

22.  Which of the following is considered a major process flow structure?

23.  Sam Meyers manages a telemarketing call center.  He has 20 employees working for him who are displeased with the way he yells and threatens to terminate them for what they see as small issues.  Which kind of power is Sam using to get the job done?

24. Which of the following is ISO 14000 primarily concerned with?

25. In _______________, workers have been fired for refusing to quit smoking, for living with someone without being married, drinking competitor's product, motorcycling, and other legal activities outside of work.

26. Mary arrives at her new job. Before she can begin actuall doing the work, she must complete a series of activities including role playing and virtual reality interactions. What type of training method does Mary's new employer use?

27. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 offered what for victims of international discrimination?

28. When an employee volunteers to run a canned food drive, this is an example of ____?

29.  Adoration of a charismatic leader by followers can lead to _________________?

30.  What can affirmative action assist organizations in achieving that diversity initiatives cannot?

STR 581 Final Exam 40 questions and answers included (100% correct!) A+

 

1) 3M, Hewlett-Packard, Lego, and other companies use the ________ to manage the innovation process.

A. joint- venture system

B. skunk works

C. venture team

D. new product “team”

E. stage-gate system

2) ________ is the difference between the prospective customer’s evaluation of all the benefits and all the costs of an offering and the perceived alternatives.

A. Failure avoidance rate

B. Competitors market share rate

C. Customer perceived value

D. Report rating

E. Perceived usefulness

3) A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. If the company purchases competitive products for study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads competitors’ published reports and stockholder information, the company is using ________ to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence.

A. intermediaries

B. sales force surrogates

C. external networks

D. advisory panels

E. customer feedback systems

4) Most established companies focus on ________ when it comes to innovation.

A. continuous innovation

B. incremental innovation

C. everyday innovation

D. demand innovation

E. competitive innovation

5) A(n) ________ is any good, service, or idea that is perceived by someone as new.

A. innovation

B. product

C. new idea

D. creative product

6) Total customer satisfaction is the general feeling of pleasure or disappointment that results from comparing perceived performance to expectations. To achieve total customer satisfaction, organizations need to_____________.

A. Spend more money

B. Develop marketing campaigns

C. Manage customer experiences

D. Lower expectations

E. Lower prices

7) A ________ is a set of procedures and sources managers use to obtain everyday information about developments in the marketing environment.

A. marketing information system

B. marketing research system

C. product management system

D. marketing intelligence system

E. vertical system

8) Marketers usually identify niches by ________.

A. conducting VALS tests

B. dividing a segment into subsegments

C. allowing consumers to gravitate toward product brands

D. examining the demographics section of The Handbook of Marketing

E. producing products that can be used in a variety of ways

9) In ________ marketing, the seller engages in the mass production, mass distribution, and mass promotion of one product for all buyers.

A. mass

B. group

C. general

D. segmented

E. differentiated

10) Particularly when shopping for ego-sensitive products such as perfumes and expensive cars, many consumers use price as an indicator of ________.

A. ability

B. capability

C. status

D. size

E. quality

11) A marketing manager needs to know the cost of the research project before approving it. During which step in the marketing research process would such a consideration most likely take place?

A. Step 1—drafting the research objectives.

B. Step 2—develop the research plan.

C. Step 1—defining the problem.

D. Step 3—information collection

E. Step 1—creating decision alternatives.

12) Which of the following is generally considered to be the last step in the marketing research process?

A. Control the environment.

B. Make the decision.

C. Present the findings.

D. Draft the report

E. Analyze the information.

13) ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant to a specific marketing situation facing the company.

A. Marketing research

B. Demographics

C. Marketing intelligence

D. Marketing management

E. MIS (marketing information system)

14) Following the ________ approach to target market selection encompasses a strong knowledge of the segment’s needs, a strong market presence, and operating economies through specializing in production, distribution, and promotion.

A. product specialization

B. market specialization

C. single-segment concentration

D. full market coverage

E. selective specialization

15) The marketing communications mix consists of six major modes of communications. Which of the following is NOT one of these modes?

A. Sales promotions

B. Packaging

C. Personal selling

D. Advertising

E. Direct marketing

16) The chief disadvantage to a firm that decides to follow a product specialization strategy in selecting target markets is ________.

A. the product may be supplanted by an entirely new technology

B. competitors can easily copy any new product introductions

C. no synergy exists

D. e-commerce becomes difficult for the company

E. logistics can become a nightmare

17) Marketing communications can contribute to brand equity by establishing the brand in memory and to________ (in)a brand image.

A. communicate

B. craft

C. create interest

D. create demand

18) “Power prices” use price as a key strategic tool. These “power prices” have discovered the highly ________ effect of price on the bottom line.

A. leveraged

B. soothing

C. dramatic

D. abrasive

E. direct

19) Some intermediaries use the following: strategic planning, advanced information systems, sophisticated marketing tools, measure performance on a return-on-investment basis, segment their markets, improve their target marketing and positioning, and ________.

A. aggressively pursue take over strategies

B. aggressively pursue market expansion and diversification strategies

C. contend with dwindling customer bases

D. aggressively “squeeze” manufacturer margins

E. dominant the manufacturers they do business with

20) Major retailer types include the following EXCEPT ________.

A. catalog showroom

B. superstore

C. specialty store

D. discount store

E. the Internet

21) ________ communicates a company’s intended value positioning of its product or brand to the market.

A. Place

B. Physical evidence

C. Packaging

D. Price

E. Promotion

22) Price has operated as the major determinant of buyer choice among poorer nations, among poorer groups, and with ________ products.

A. over the Internet

B. commodity-type

C. identical

D. similar

23) New-to-the- world products are ________.

A. new products that supplement established product lines (package sizes, flavors, and so on)

B. existing products that are targeted to new markets or market segments

C. new products that create an entirely new market

D. new products that allow a company to enter an established market for the first time

E. new products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value and replace existing products

24) _____ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a “fixed pie.”

A. Reflective

B. Distributive

C. Affective

D. Conjunctive

E. Integrative

25) The two general approaches to bargaining are known as ________.

A. distributive and integrative

B. emotional and rational.

C. formal and informal.

D. legal and restrictive

E. affective and reflective

26) Leadership is best defined as _____.

A. implementing the vision and strategy provided by management

B. the ability to influence a group in goal achievement

C. coordinating and staffing the organization and handling day-to-day problems

D. not a relevant variable in modern organizations

E. keeping order and consistency in the midst of change

27) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?

A. A work group consists of 3 or more people who take on self-supervising responsibilities.

B. The performance of a work group is generally greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members.

C. A work group consists of 3 or more people from across departmental or functional lines.

D. A work group is a group comprised of 10 or more people

E. A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort.

28) Which of the following statements about leadership is true?

A. managers are leaders.

B. leaders are managers.

C. leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.

D. Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as or more important than formal influence.

E. Formal rights enable managers to lead effectively.

29) Negotiation can be defined as a process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree upon _____.

A. a model of the negotiation process for resolving differences

B. the exchange rate for those goods and services

C. effective arbitrators for disputes

D. the monetary value of the exchanged items

E. acceptable bargaining strategies for obtaining the goods and services

30) If no one is aware of conflict, it is generally agreed that _____.

A. no conflict exists

B. employee-employer relations will be good

C. conflict is inevitable

D. conflict is psychologically driven as opposed to physically manifest

E. conflict is subversive

31) Training employees how to be better listeners falls under which of the following training categories?

A. problem-solving skills

B. ethical skills

C. interpersonal skills

D. cultural skills

E. technical skills

32) _____ can be used to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly.

A. Multiple raters

B. Documenting with a journal

C. Due process

D. Selective evaluation

E. Focusing on subjective evaluations

33) Which of the following is NOT a typical written test used in organizations?

A. personality

B. aptitude

C. integrity

D. intelligence

E. work sample

34) Examples of off-the-job training include all of the following except _____.

A. Internet courses

B. public seminars

C. apprenticeship programs

D. classroom lectures

E. videotapes

35) Which of the following has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that require cognitive complexity?

A. work sampling

B. aptitude tests

C. integrity evaluations

D. intelligence tests

E. behavioral assessment

36) Which of the following is not a primary force for change in organizations?

A. decreasing skill sets

B. social trends

C. economic shocks

D. technology

E. the nature of the workforce

37) The “realistic” personality from Holland’s typology of personality and congruent occupations would be well suited for which of the following jobs?

A. mechanic

B. lawyer

C. accountant

D. painter

E. biologist

38) _____ developed a Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire that contains 160 occupational titles.

A. Hofstede

B. Herzberg

C. Holland

D. Maslow

E. Surber

39) Which of the following would NOT be classified as a time-series technique?

A. box Jenkins technique

B. trend projections

C. exponential smoothing

D. simple moving average

E. regression model

40) What term is used for the tendency of an individual to attribute his own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors?

A. selective perception

B. stereotyping

C. consistency

D. self-serving bias

E. fundamental attribution error

STR 581 Week 4 Capstone Final Examination, Part 2

1. Internal reports that review the actual impact of decisions are prepared by:          

A.    the controller 

B.     department heads    

C.     factory workers         

D.    management accountants

 2. Horizontal analysis is also known as:        

A.    trend analysis

B.     vertical analysis        

C.     linear analysis           

D.    common size analysis

 3. Which of the following is an advantage of corporations relative to partnerships and sole proprietorships?   

A.    most common form of organization

B.     reduced legal liability for investors 

C.     lower taxes    

D.    harder to transfer ownership

 4. Serox stock was selling for $20 two years ago. The stock sold for $25 one year ago, and it is currently selling for $28.  Serox pays a $1.10 dividend per year.  What was the rate of return for owning Serox in the most recent year? (Round to the nearest percent.)          

A.    32%   

B.     16%   

C.     12%   

D.    40%

Solution: Given, 2 years ago the price was $20. After 1 year it was sold for $25(P 0 =$25) 1 =$28) Dividend (D 1 =1.10) Rate of Return(R)= D 1 +(P 1 -P 0 )/P 0 x100 =[$1.10+$(28-25)/25]x100 =16%

5. External financing needed: Jockey Company has total assets worth $4,417,665. At year-end it will have net income of $2,771,342 and pay out 60 percent as dividends. If the firm wants no external financing, what is the growth rate it can support?          

A.    30.3%

B.     27.3%

C.     32.9%

D.    25.1%

Solution -  Growth = RR * ROE = (1-Dividend payout ratio) * (2,771,342 / 4,417,665) = 25.1 %

6. An unrealistic budget is more likely to result when it:    

A.    has been developed by all levels of management.          

B.     has been developed in a top down fashion.         

C.     has been developed in a bottom up fashion.

D.    is developed with performance appraisal usages in mind.

Explanation: Executive managers at the top of the ladder are less capable of accurately predicating budgetary requirements

7. Which of the following financial statements is concerned with the company at a point in time?           

A.    balance sheet           

B.     retained earnings statement           

C.     statement of cash flows

D.    income statement

 8. Next year Jenkins Traders will pay a dividend of $3.00.  It expects to increase its dividend by $0.25 in each of the following three years.  If their required rate of return if 14 percent, what is the present value of their dividends over the next four years?    

A.    $12.50           

B.     $11.63           

C.     $9.72 

D.    $13.50

Solution: Given,n=3,D1=$3.00, G=0.25,R=14% Present Value of dividends over the next 4 years=$(3.00/1.14)+$3.25/(1.14) 2 +$3.50/(1.14) 3 +$3.75/(1.14) 4 =$(2.63+2.50+2.36+2.22) =$9.72

9. An activity that has a direct cause-effect relationship with the resources consumed is a(n):           

A.    product activity         

B.     cost driver     

C.     cost pool       

D.    overhead rate

10. The major element in budgetary control is:        

A.    the approval of the budget by the stockholders    

B.     the valuation of inventories  

C.     the preparation of long-term plans 

D.    the comparison of actual results with planned objectives.

11. Tule Time Comics is considering a new show that will generate annual cash flows of $100,000 into the infinite future. If the initial outlay for such a production is $1,500,000 and the appropriate discount rate is 6 percent for the cash flows, then what is the profitability index for the project?

A.    0.11   

B.     1.11   

C.     0.90   

D.    1.90

Solution - Annual cash flow = $100,000

Initial out flow = $1,500,000

Profitability index = Cash inflow/cash outflow = ${100,000/.06}/$1,500,000=1.11  

12. How firms estimate their cost of capital: The WACC for a firm is 13.00 percent. You know that the firm’s cost of debt capital is 10 percent and the cost of equity capital is 20% What proportion of the firm is financed with debt?

A.    70%   

B.     50%   

C.     33%   

D.    30%

Solution - x Debt = Y, x Equity = (1 – Y) k Firm = x Debt k Debt + x Equity k Equity ==> 0.13= (Y x 0.1) + ((1 – Y) x 0.20) ==> Y = 0.7

13. The most important information needed to determine if companies can pay their current obligations is the: 

A.    relationship between current assets and current liabilities          

B.     relationship between short-term and long-term liabilities

C.     projected net income for next year 

D.    net income for this year

14. Process costing is used when:      

A.    dissimilar products are involved     

B.     production is aimed at fulfilling a specific customer order.         

C.     the production process is continuous.       

D.    costs are to be assigned to specific jobs.

15. A cost which remains constant per unit at various levels of activity is a:   

A.    fixed cost       

B.     mixed cost    

C.     manufacturing cost   

D.    variable cost

16.The group of users of accounting information charged with achieving the goals of the business is its:      

A.    investors        

B.     auditors         

C.     creditors        

D.    managers

17. Teakap, Inc. has current assets of $1,456,312 and total assets of $4,812,369 for the year ending September 30, 2006.  It also has current liabilities of $1,041,012, common equity of $1,500,000 and retained earnings of $1,468,347. How much long-term debt does the firm have?           

A.    $803,010      

B.     $2,303,010   

C.     $1,844,022   

D.    $2,123,612

Explanation: Assets = Liabilities + Equity 4,812,369 = Long term debt + 1,041,012 + 1,500,000 + 1,468,347 Long Term Debt = 4,812,369 - 4,009,359 = 803,010

18. The cash conversion cycle?           

A.    begins when the firm invests cash to purchase the raw materials that would be used to produce the goods that the firm manufactures.        

B.     estimates how long it takes on average for the firm to collect its outstanding accounts receivables balance.        

C.     begins when the firm uses its cash to purchase raw materials and ends when the firm collects cash payments on its credit sales. 

D.    shows how long the firm keeps its inventory before selling it.

Explanation - The cash conversion cycle begins when the firm invests cash to purchase the raw materials that would be used to produce the goods that the firm manufactures and ends not with the finished goods being sold to customers and the cash collected on the sales; but when you take into account the time taken by the firm to pay for its purchases.

 19. Ajax Corp. is expecting the following cash flows - $79,000, $112,000, $164,000, $84,000, and $242,000 – over the next five years.  If the company’s opportunity cost is 15 percent, what is the present value of these cash flows? (Round to the nearest dollar.)  

A.    $480,906      

B.     $429,560      

C.     $414,322      

D.    $477,235

Pv =$79,000/1.15+ $112,000/(1.15) 2 +$164,000/(1.15) 3 +$84,000/(1.15) 4 + $2,42,000/(1.15) 5 =$(68696+84,688+107833+48027+120316) =$429,560

20. Jack Robbins is saving for a new car. He needs to have $21,000 for the car in three years. How much will he have to invest today in an account paying 8 percent annually to achieve his target? (Round to nearest dollar)         

A.    $26,454         

B.     $19,444         

C.     $22,680         

D.    $16,670

Solution -  = $21,000/ (1.08*1.08*1.08) = $16,670

21. Which of the following presents a summary of changes in a firm’s balance sheet from the beginning of an accounting period to the end of that accounting period?      

A.    the statement of net worth   

B.     the statement of cash flows 

C.     the statement of working capital     

D.    the statement of retained earnings

22. M&M Proposition 1: Dynamo Corp. produces annual cash flows of $150 and is expected to exist forever. The company is currently financed with 75 percent equity and 25 percent debt. Your analysis tells you that the appropriate discount rates are 10 percent for the cash flows, and 7 percent for the debt. You currently own 10 percent of the stock.

If Dynamo wishes to change its capital structure from 75 percent equity to 60 percent equity and use the debt proceeds to pay a special dividend to shareholders, how much debt should they use?    

A.    $225  

B.     $600  

C.     $375  

D.    $321

23. Horizontal analysis is a technique for evaluating a series of financial statement data over a period of time:        

A.    that has been arranged from the highest number to the lowest number.           

B.     to determine the amount and/or percentage increase or decrease that has taken place.      

C.     to determine which items are in error.       

D.    that has been arranged from the lowest number to the highest number.

24. Jayadev Athreya has started his first job. He will invest $5,000 at the end of each year for the next 45 years in a fund that will earn a return of 10 percent.  How much will Jayadev have at the end of 45 years?

A.    $2,667,904   

B.     $5,233,442   

C.     $1,745,600   

D.    $3,594,524

Explanation: 5000 / 0.10 (1 – 1 / (1+0.10^45))

25. Turnbull Corp. had an EBIT of $247 million in the last fiscal year.  Its depreciation and amortization expenses amounted to $84 million.  The firm has 135 million shares outstanding and a share price of $12.80. A competing firm that is very similar to Turnbull has an enterprise value/EBITDA multiple of 5.40.

What is the enterprise value of Turnbull Corp.? Round to the nearest million dollars.         

A.    $1,344 million           

B.     $453.6 million           

C.     $1,315 million

D.    $1,787 million

26. Firms that achieve higher growth rates without seeking external financing:        

A.    Have a low plowback ratio  

B.     are highly leveraged

C.     have less equity and/or are able to generate high net income leading to a high ROE.

D.    None of these

Explanation: Firms that don’t receive financing may have less equity, but the equity is higher quality and produces a better rate of return

27. In a process cost system, product costs are summarized:    

A.    on job cost sheets.   

B.     when the products are sold.

C.     after each unit is produced.

D.    on production cost reports.

28. The convention of consistency refers to consistent use of accounting principles:        

A.    within industries        

B.     among accounting periods 

C.     throughout the accounting period   

D.    among firms

 29. If a company’s weighted average cost of capital is less than  the required return on equity, then the firm:          

A.    is financed with more than 50% debt         

B.     is perceived to be safe        

C.     partnership    

D.    has debt in its capital structure

30. Your firm has an equity multiplier of 2.47.  What is the debt-to-equity ratio?         

A.    0         

B.     1.74   

C.     0.60   

D.    1.47

31. The accumulation of accounting data on the basis of the individual manager who has the authority to make day-to-day decisions about activities in an area is called:  

A.    master budgeting     

B.     static reporting         

C.     responsibility accounting

D.    flexible accounting

32. Regatta, Inc., has six-year bonds outstanding that pay a 8.25 percent coupon rate. Investors buying the bond today can expect to earn a yield to maturity of 6.875 percent. What should the company’s bonds be priced at today? Assume annual coupon payments. (Round to the nearest dollar.)       

A.    $1014

B.     $972  

C.     $923  

D.    $1,066

Solution - Years to maturity = n = 6 Coupon rate = C = 8.25% Annual coupon = $1,000 × 0.0825 = $82.50 Current market rate = i = 6.875% The correct answer is: $1,066

33. Variance reports are: 

A.    internal reports for management    

B.     SEC financial reports          

C.     external financial reports

D.    all of these

 34. The break-even point is where:      

A.    contribution margin equals total fixed costs.         

B.     total sales equal total variable costs.         

C.     total sales equal total fixed costs.

D.    total variable costs equal total fixed costs.

35. When a company assigns the costs of direct materials, direct labor, and both variable and fixed manufacturing overhead to products, that company is using:      

A.    operations costing   

B.     product costing         

C.     absorption costing   

D.    variable costing

36. Which of the following is considered a hybrid organizational form?           

A.    sole proprietorship   

B.     partnership    

C.     limited liability partnership  

D.    corporation

37. Gateway, Corp.  has an inventory turnover of 5.6.  What is the firm’s days’s sales in inventory?   

A.    57.9   

B.     61.7   

C.     65.2   

D.    64.3

38. The process of evaluating financial data that change under alternative courses of action is called:        

A.    incremental analysis

B.     contribution margin analysis           

C.     cost-benefit analysis

D.    double entry analysis

39. What decision criteria should managers use in selecting projects when there is not enough capital to invest in all available positive NPV projects?     

A.    the modified internal rate of return 

B.     the profitability index

C.     the discounted payback      

D.    the internal rate of return

 

STR 581 Week 6 Capstone Final Examination, Part 3 (New)

1. A(n) ________ market share of exactly 100 percent means that a company is tied for the market lead. A rise in relative market share means the company is gaining on its leading competitor.

A.    Potential

B.     Relative

C.     Served

D.    overall

2. The typical risks of a cost leadership strategy include___________.

A.    loss of customer loyalty

B.     excessive differentiation to the point where the customer base is too small

C.     the inability to balance high differentiation and low price

D.    production and distribution processes becoming obsolete

3. The likelihood of entry of new competitors is affected by  and ___________.

A.    the power of existing suppliers; buyers

B.     the profitability of the industry; the market share of its leading firm

C.     barriers to entry; expected retaliation of current industry organizations

D.    the demand for the product; the profitability of the competitors

4. In general, compared with firms which compete in only one market, among firms which face one another in multiple markets there is__________.

A.    similar competitive rivalry

B.     more competitive rivalry

C.     less competitive rivalry

D.    no competitive rivalry

5. The three parts of the external environment which affect a firm's strategic actions are__________.

A.    economic, political, and legal

B.     industry, business, and product

C.     local, national, and global

D.    general, industry, and competitor

6. The proper matching of what a firm can do with what a firm might do__________.

A.    balances the internal characteristics of the firm with the characteristics of the external environment

B.     overcomes the rigidity and inertia resulting from a history of success

C.     develops core competencies based on human knowledge

D.    yields insights the firm requires to select its strategy

7. Gordon Jones is considering purchasing a computer from Best Buy. He has created a scale for rating eight different computers on three different characteristics. He plans to make a short list of only those computers that score at least a 7 on his scale on all three characteristics. Which of the following choice heuristics has he chosen?

A.    anchoring and adjustment heuristic

B.     elimination-by-aspects heuristic

C.     conjunctive heuristic

D.    lexicographic heuristic

8. The term "conglomerates" refers to firms using the diversification strategy.

A.    related constrained

B.     related linked

C.     global

D.    unrelated

9. The goal of the organization's ________ is to point the firm in the direction of where it would like to be in the years to come.

A.    strategy

B.     mission

C.     culture

D.    vision

10. A company that seeks to increase its sales and profits through backward, forward, or horizontal integration within the industry is said to be employing a(n) ________ growth strategy.

A.    target

B.     diversification

C.     intensive

D.    integrative

11. Annual-plan control requires making sure the company isn't overspending to achieve sales goals. T

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STR 581 final exam study guide 140/140 mcqs correct
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